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A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed insulin glargine (Lantus). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I should inject this insulin at the same time each day.'
- B. I can mix this insulin with regular insulin if needed.'
- C. This insulin helps control my blood sugar overnight.'
- D. I should not see a peak in action with this insulin.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Insulin glargine, a long-acting basal insulin, provides steady glucose control without a peak. Mixing it with regular insulin is incorrect'glargine's pH precipitates if combined, altering its action, indicating a teaching need. Same-time injection ensures consistency. Overnight control and no peak align with its 24-hour, flat profile. The misconception about mixing risks erratic glucose levels, critical in type 2 diabetes where stability is key. Further teaching must clarify glargine's unique formulation, preventing administration errors that could lead to hypo- or hyperglycemia, making B the statement requiring correction.
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Which of the following antiparkinsonian drugs may cause vasospasm?
- A. Amantadine
- B. Bromocriptine
- C. Carbidopa
- D. Entacapone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bromocriptine, a dopamine D2 agonist used in Parkinson's, has ergot alkaloid properties, which can cause vasospasm by stimulating vascular smooth muscle receptors, occasionally leading to Raynaud's-like symptoms or digital ischemia. Amantadine, an NMDA antagonist, enhances dopamine release but lacks vasoconstrictive effects. Carbidopa inhibits dopa decarboxylase, aiding levodopa delivery without vascular impact. Entacapone, a COMT inhibitor, extends levodopa's duration but doesn't affect vessels. Ropinirole, a non-ergot agonist, avoids vasospasm. Bromocriptine's ergot-derived vasoconstriction, though rare, distinguishes it among antiparkinsonian drugs, requiring caution in patients with vascular risks.
A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Epoetin Alfa. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. WBC count.
- B. Platelet count.
- C. Hemoglobin.
- D. Serum potassium.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, so hemoglobin levels should be monitored to assess the effectiveness of the drug. Monitoring hemoglobin levels helps evaluate the response to Epoetin Alfa treatment and ensures that the client's anemia is being appropriately managed.
A client has a prescription for Clindamycin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Avoid taking the medication with food.
- C. Discontinue the medication if diarrhea occurs.
- D. Expect to have increased appetite while taking this medication.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Clindamycin is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Clindamycin can cause esophageal irritation, so taking it with a full glass of water helps minimize this risk. Avoiding taking the medication with food is not necessary. If diarrhea occurs, clients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider. Clindamycin is not known to cause increased appetite.
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer eye drops to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Have the client lie on their side.
- B. Ask the client to look up at the ceiling.
- C. Tell the client to blink when the drops enter their eye.
- D. Drop the medication into the center of the client's conjunctival sac.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin via continuous IV infusion. Which of the following results indicates that the heparin infusion should be increased?
- A. aPTT of 90 seconds
- B. Platelet count of 150,000/mm³
- C. INR of 1.0
- D. Hgb of 15 g/dL
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An aPTT of 90 seconds is above the therapeutic range for heparin, which typically falls between 60-80 seconds. This indicates that the current heparin dose is too high, and the infusion rate should be decreased to avoid excessive anticoagulation and the risk of bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in adjusting heparin therapy to maintain it within the therapeutic range.