Nokea
A couple inquires about the inheritance of Huntington's disease (HD) because the prospective father's mother is dying of the illness. There is no history of the disease in his partner's family. The man has never been tested for HD. Which of the following responses by the nurse is appropriate?
- A. Because HD is an autosomal dominant disease
- B. each and every one of your children will have a 1 in 4 chance of having the disease.
- C. Because only one of you has a family history of HD
- D. the probability of any of your children having the disease is less than 10%.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Without testing, the exact risk cannot be determined, but each child has a 50% chance if the father carries the gene.
You may also like to solve these questions
What is the purpose of progesterone in supporting early pregnancy?
- A. To increase fetal growth rates.
- B. To maintain the uterine lining and prevent menstrual shedding.
- C. To stimulate ovulation during the menstrual cycle.
- D. To regulate the release of other reproductive hormones.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because progesterone plays a crucial role in maintaining the uterine lining to support implantation and prevent menstrual shedding. Progesterone prepares the uterus for the potential implantation of a fertilized egg by thickening the endometrium. If fertilization occurs, progesterone continues to support the pregnancy by ensuring the uterine lining remains intact to provide a nurturing environment for the developing embryo. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because progesterone's main function in early pregnancy is not to increase fetal growth rates, stimulate ovulation, or regulate the release of other reproductive hormones.
A couple undergoing fertility treatments asks about male factor infertility. What should the nurse discuss?
- A. Male infertility is always caused by low testosterone levels.
- B. Sperm count, motility, and morphology are critical factors in male fertility.
- C. Male infertility does not affect the success of fertility treatments.
- D. Male factor infertility cannot be diagnosed with a semen analysis.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because sperm count, motility, and morphology are indeed critical factors in male fertility. Sperm count refers to the number of sperm present, motility is the ability of sperm to move effectively, and morphology relates to the shape and structure of sperm. These factors directly impact a man's fertility potential.
Choice A is incorrect because male infertility can have various causes, not solely low testosterone levels. Choice C is incorrect as male infertility can impact the success of fertility treatments. Choice D is incorrect because semen analysis is a key diagnostic tool for identifying male factor infertility.
The nurse is educating a client about hysterosalpingograms. Which information should the nurse include prior to this procedure?
- A. This procedure is always performed under general anesthesia.
- B. This procedure should be performed after ovulation has occurred.
- C. This procedure involves instillation of a radiopaque dye into the uterine cavity.
- D. After the procedure, the client should take Tylenol to decrease cramping.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer C:
1. Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) involves instillation of a radiopaque dye into the uterine cavity to visualize the uterus and fallopian tubes.
2. This dye helps to identify any abnormalities or blockages in the reproductive system.
3. The nurse should include this information as it is essential for the client to understand the purpose and process of the procedure.
4. Understanding the use of the dye can help alleviate any anxiety or concerns the client may have.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: This procedure is typically performed without general anesthesia.
B: HSG can be performed at various points in the menstrual cycle, not specifically after ovulation.
D: Tylenol may be recommended for pain relief post-procedure, but it is not a necessary pre-procedure step.
A client has just had an amniocentesis to determine whether her baby has an inheritable genetic disease. Which of the following interventions is highest priority at this time?
- A. Assess the fetal heart rate.
- B. Check the client's temperature.
- C. Acknowledge the client's anxiety about the possible findings.
- D. Answer questions regarding the genetic abnormality.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Addressing the client's anxiety is crucial to providing holistic care.
Lori, who is 32 years old, is taking clomiphene citrate to induce ovulation and presents to the office for a vaginal ultrasound. As the nurse is walking Lori to ultrasound, Lori mentions that over the past 12 hours she has experienced abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain of 5 pounds. The nurse recognizes these signs and symptoms to be associated with what condition?
- A. Ovulation
- B. Premenstrual syndrome
- C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
- D. Failed ovulation induction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). OHSS is a potential complication of ovulation induction with medications like clomiphene citrate. The symptoms Lori is experiencing (abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain) are classic signs of moderate OHSS. The mechanism involves excessive response to the ovulation induction medication leading to enlarged ovaries and fluid accumulation in the abdomen. It is crucial to monitor patients on ovulation induction therapy for signs of OHSS to prevent severe complications.
Choice A: Ovulation - This is incorrect because the symptoms described are not typical of ovulation itself.
Choice B: Premenstrual syndrome - This is incorrect because the symptoms are not specific to premenstrual syndrome and are more indicative of a complication related to medication.
Choice D: Failed ovulation induction - This is incorrect because the symptoms suggest a response to the medication rather than a failure of ovulation.