Nokea
A male client in the day room becomes increasingly angry and aggressive when denied a day-pass. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Tell him he can have a day pass if he calms down.
- B. Put the client's behavior on extinction.
- C. Decrease the volume on the television set.
- D. Instruct the client to sit down and be quiet.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because instructing the client to sit down and be quiet is a non-confrontational and calming approach to de-escalate the situation. It helps redirect the client's focus and encourages self-regulation. Choice A may reinforce the aggressive behavior by rewarding it. Choice B (putting behavior on extinction) may escalate the situation further. Choice C (decreasing TV volume) does not address the client's behavior directly.
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The client with a history of heart failure is taking furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Serum sodium.
- B. Serum potassium.
- C. Serum calcium.
- D. Serum magnesium.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias in patients with heart failure. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications.
Incorrect choices:
A: Serum sodium - Furosemide may cause hyponatremia, but it is less critical compared to hypokalemia in a client with heart failure.
C: Serum calcium - Furosemide does not directly affect calcium levels significantly in most cases.
D: Serum magnesium - While furosemide can cause hypomagnesemia, monitoring potassium is more essential in this scenario due to its impact on cardiac function.
Following a CVA, the nurse assesses that a client developed dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a firm, distended abdomen. Which prescription for the client should the nurse question?
- A. Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy.
- B. Total parenteral nutrition to be infused at 125 ml/hour.
- C. Nasogastric tube connected to low intermittent suction.
- D. Metoclopramide (Reglan) intermittent piggyback.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Continuous tube feeding at 65 ml/hr via gastrostomy. Dysphagia, hypoactive bowel sounds, and a distended abdomen indicate a potential risk for aspiration or impaired gastrointestinal motility. Continuous tube feeding may worsen these conditions. The nurse should question this prescription to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are not immediate concerns for dysphagia and bowel issues. Total parenteral nutrition, nasogastric tube connected to suction, and metoclopramide can be appropriate interventions for nutritional support and bowel motility in this scenario.
The client has acute kidney injury (AKI). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Urine output of 50 ml in the last hour.
- B. Serum potassium of 6.2 mEq/L.
- C. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
- D. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium of 6.2 mEq/L. Hyperkalemia is a life-threatening condition in AKI. High potassium levels can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed immediately. Choice A is concerning but not as critical as hyperkalemia. Choice C, elevated blood pressure, needs monitoring but does not require immediate intervention. Choice D, elevated serum creatinine, indicates kidney dysfunction but does not pose an immediate threat compared to hyperkalemia.
During an admission physical assessment, the nurse is examining a newborn who is small for gestational age (SGA). Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the pediatric healthcare provider?
- A. Heel stick glucose of 65 mg/dL.
- B. Head circumference of 35 cm (14 inches).
- C. Widened, tense, bulging fontanel.
- D. High-pitched shrill cry.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Widened, tense, bulging fontanel. This finding is concerning as it can indicate increased intracranial pressure, potentially leading to serious complications in a newborn. The fontanel should be flat or slightly depressed, not bulging. Immediate reporting is necessary for timely intervention.
Incorrect choices:
A: Heel stick glucose of 65 mg/dL is slightly low but not an immediate concern; can be managed with feeding.
B: Head circumference of 35 cm is within the normal range for a newborn and does not require immediate action.
D: High-pitched shrill cry can be a sign of distress but not as urgent as a bulging fontanel in this context.
The healthcare provider prescribes naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO twice a day for a client with osteoarthritis. During a follow-up visit one month later, the client tells the nurse, 'The pills don't seem to be working. They are not helping the pain at all.' Which factor should influence the nurse's response?
- A. Noncompliance is probably affecting optimal medication effectiveness.
- B. Drug dosage is inadequate and needs to be increased to three times a day.
- C. The drug needs 4 to 6 weeks to reach therapeutic levels in the bloodstream.
- D. NSAID response is variable, and trying another NSAID may be more effective.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: NSAID response is variable - Different individuals respond differently to NSAIDs like naproxen due to genetic and physiological differences.
Step 2: Trying another NSAID may be more effective - If the current NSAID is not effective, switching to a different one with a different mechanism of action may provide better pain relief.
Step 3: Individualized approach - Tailoring the treatment to the individual's response is key in managing osteoarthritis pain effectively.
Summary: Choice D is correct as it acknowledges the variability in NSAID response and suggests trying another NSAID if the current one is ineffective. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not address the variable response to NSAIDs and do not provide a solution to address the lack of pain relief.