Nokea
A male patient who has undergone an anterior-posterior repair is worried about his sexuality. What is an appropriate nursing intervention for this patient?
- A. Have the patient's sexual partner reassure the patient that he is still desirable.
- B. Reassure the patient that sexual function will return when healing is complete.
- C. Remind the patient that affection can be expressed in ways other than through sexual intercourse.
- D. Explain that physical and emotional factors can affect sexual function but not necessarily the patient's sexuality.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Choice C is correct because it acknowledges the patient's concerns about sexuality post-surgery.
2. Reminding the patient that affection can be expressed in non-sexual ways validates his feelings.
3. It promotes open communication and offers alternative ways to maintain intimacy during the healing process.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A. Involving the sexual partner may add pressure and may not address the patient's personal insecurities.
B. Promising a return to normal sexual function may create false expectations and overlook emotional aspects.
D. Focusing on physical and emotional factors may downplay the patient's specific concerns about his sexuality.
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A client is admitted to the hospital for a hemorrhoidectomy. Postoperatively, which of the following would a client's nurse be most concerned about?
- A. Pain at the incision site
- B. White blood count of 6.5
- C. Client's refusal of a stool softener
- D. Excessive bloody drainage on the external gauze dressing
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because excessive bloody drainage on the external gauze dressing could indicate hemorrhage, a serious complication post-hemorrhoidectomy. This requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications.
A: Pain at the incision site is expected postoperatively and can be managed with pain medication.
B: A white blood count of 6.5 is within the normal range and not a cause for concern.
C: Client's refusal of a stool softener is important for bowel movement management but is not the most immediate concern compared to excessive bloody drainage.
At which relative exercise intensity would you expect to utilize the most intramuscular triglycerides?
- A. 25% VO2 max (i.e. 25% of aerobic capacity)
- B. 65% VO2 max
- C. 85% VO2 max
- D. 150% VO2 max
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (65% VO2 max) because at this intensity, the body primarily uses a combination of fats and carbohydrates for energy production. Intramuscular triglycerides are a source of fat utilized during moderate-intensity exercise. At 25% VO2 max (choice A), the body predominantly uses carbohydrates, while at 85% VO2 max (choice C) and 150% VO2 max (choice D), the reliance shifts towards carbohydrates due to the higher intensity levels. Therefore, option B is the most suitable intensity for utilizing intramuscular triglycerides efficiently.
The three pairs of extrinsic salivary glands are:
- A. parotid sublingual and ethmoidal
- B. Parotid buccal and submaxillary
- C. Parotid sub mandibular and buccal
- D. Parotid Submandibular and sublingual
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the extrinsic salivary glands are the parotid, submandibular, and sublingual glands. The parotid gland is located near the ear, the submandibular gland is under the mandible, and the sublingual gland is under the tongue.
A is incorrect because the ethmoidal gland is not an extrinsic salivary gland. B is incorrect because the buccal gland is not an extrinsic salivary gland. C is incorrect because the buccal gland is not an extrinsic salivary gland; it is a minor salivary gland located in the cheek.
A patient receives atropine, an anticholinergic drug, in preparation for surgery. The nurse expects this drug to affect the GI tract by doing what?
- A. Increasing gastric emptying
- B. Relaxing pyloric and ileocecal sphincters
- C. Decreasing secretions and peristaltic action
- D. Stimulating the nervous system of the GI tract
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreasing secretions and peristaltic action. Atropine, as an anticholinergic drug, inhibits the action of acetylcholine, leading to decreased secretions and peristaltic movement in the GI tract. This results in reduced motility and secretion production.
A: Increasing gastric emptying - This is incorrect because atropine actually slows down gastric emptying by reducing peristaltic action.
B: Relaxing pyloric and ileocecal sphincters - This is incorrect because atropine does not directly relax these sphincters.
D: Stimulating the nervous system of the GI tract - This is incorrect because atropine inhibits the parasympathetic nervous system, leading to decreased GI tract activity.
Which structure is located where the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm?
- A. esophageal hiatus
- B. cardiac orifice
- C. upper esophageal sphincter
- D. lower esophageal sphincter
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: esophageal hiatus. This is the opening in the diaphragm through which the esophagus passes, connecting the thoracic and abdominal cavities. The esophageal hiatus is specifically located at the level of the tenth thoracic vertebra. The other choices are incorrect because:
B: Cardiac orifice refers to the opening of the stomach into the esophagus, not where the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm.
C: Upper esophageal sphincter is a muscular valve at the upper end of the esophagus, not related to its passage through the diaphragm.
D: Lower esophageal sphincter is located at the junction of the esophagus and stomach, not at the point where the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm.