Nokea
A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?
- A. 0.40 FTEs
- B. 17.0 FTEs
- C. 0.05 FTEs
- D. 1.0 FTEs
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To determine the FTEs needed, divide the total benefit hours by the standard annual benefit hours for a full-time employee. In this case, 832 benefit hours / 2080 standard annual benefit hours = 0.4 FTEs (Choice A). This is because an FTE represents the hours worked by one full-time employee in a year.
Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is significantly higher than the calculated 0.4 FTEs. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is too low and does not accurately reflect the number of FTEs needed for 832 benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it assumes that 832 benefit hours equal the standard annual benefit hours for one full-time employee, which is not the case here.
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After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?
- A. 19-year-old with type 1 diabetes who was admitted with possible dawn phenomenon
- B. 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes whose most recent blood glucose reading was 230 mg/dL
- C. 60-year-old with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who has poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa
- D. 68-year-old with type 2 diabetes who has severe peripheral neuropathy and complains of burning foot pain
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome showing signs of poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa is at risk for severe dehydration and potential complications. Assessing this patient first is crucial to address their immediate needs.
Choice A is incorrect as the 19-year-old with possible dawn phenomenon can be assessed after the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who is at higher risk.
Choice B is incorrect as a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL in a 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes is high but not indicative of an immediate life-threatening situation compared to severe dehydration.
Choice D is incorrect as the 68-year-old with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, while in discomfort, does not present an immediate threat to their life like severe dehydration does in a patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.
When communicating with a client who has a complaint, what principle is important to keep in mind?
- A. Supervisors should always be involved.
- B. The client's physician is often the cause of the problem.
- C. Avoid discussion of complaints.
- D. Clients and families should be treated with respect; communication should be open and honest.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. It is important to treat clients and families with respect, practicing open and honest communication. This fosters trust, helps address concerns, and improves client satisfaction. Choice A is incorrect as involving supervisors may not always be necessary. Choice B is incorrect as the physician may not always be the cause of the problem. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding discussion can lead to unresolved issues. In summary, choice D promotes a positive and effective client-provider relationship, while the other choices do not address the core principles of effective communication and client-centered care.
When preparing for a meeting to discuss the annual budget, what would be the best approach to ensure all relevant points are covered?
- A. Prepare an agenda
- B. Use visual aids
- C. Invite only key stakeholders
- D. Review previous budgets
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prepare an agenda. This approach ensures that all relevant points are covered by structuring the meeting topics in a logical sequence. Step 1: Identify key discussion points. Step 2: Organize them in a coherent order on the agenda. Step 3: Share the agenda with participants beforehand. This allows everyone to come prepared, promotes focus, and helps stay on track during the meeting. Visual aids (B) may enhance understanding but don't ensure all points are covered. Inviting only key stakeholders (C) limits perspectives. Reviewing previous budgets (D) is valuable but not sufficient for comprehensive coverage.
A client is admitted to a medical-surgical unit after six hours in the emergency room. He requests that his AM care be delayed to allow him to rest. The nurse complies with his request. This is an example of which type of management philosophy?
- A. Continuous quality improvement
- B. Total quality management
- C. Six Sigma
- D. Quality management
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Total quality management. This approach focuses on meeting customer needs and continuous improvement. By allowing the client to rest, the nurse is prioritizing the client's comfort and well-being, which aligns with the principles of total quality management. Continuous quality improvement (A) focuses on incremental improvements, Six Sigma (C) aims to reduce defects, and Quality management (D) is a broader term that encompasses various quality approaches.
Which of the following are effective strategies to become more resilient? (EXCEPT)
- A. Exercising and avoiding high-fat foods.
- B. Managing time effectively.
- C. Becoming more self-aware.
- D. Deciding that your career is not your highest priority.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because prioritizing career over personal well-being can lead to burnout and reduced resilience. A is incorrect as exercising and healthy eating improve physical health, contributing to resilience. B is incorrect because effective time management reduces stress and enhances resilience. C is incorrect because self-awareness helps in understanding emotions and coping mechanisms, thus enhancing resilience.