A nurse is assessing a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Dehydration
- D. Polyphagia
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dehydration. In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone leading to excessive urine output, causing dehydration. Bradycardia (A) is not typically associated. Hyperglycemia (B) is seen in diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. Polyphagia (D) is excessive hunger, which is not a common symptom of diabetes insipidus.
You may also like to solve these questions
A nurse is caring for a client following the surgical placement of a colostomy. Which of the following statements indicates the client understands the dietary teaching?
- A. Your largest meal of the day should be in the evening.
- B. Eating yogurt can help decrease the amount of gas that I have.
- C. Carbonated beverages can help control odor.
- D. I should eliminate pasta from my diet so that I don’t have many loose stools.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because eating yogurt can help decrease gas due to its probiotic properties which aid in digestion. This statement shows the client understands dietary adjustments post-colostomy surgery. Choice A is incorrect as meal distribution does not affect colostomy care. Choice C is incorrect as carbonated beverages can worsen odor. Choice D is incorrect as pasta is not necessarily a problematic food post-colostomy.
A nurse is preparing a client who is to receive chemotherapy for treatment of ovarian cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Tell the client to expect dark stools following chemotherapy.
- B. Have the client swish with commercial mouthwash before therapy.
- C. Administer an antiemetic prior to the procedure.
- D. Have the client floss 4 times daily.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Administer an antiemetic prior to the procedure. This is important because chemotherapy often causes nausea and vomiting. Administering an antiemetic helps prevent or reduce these side effects, promoting client comfort and compliance with treatment. Choice A is incorrect because dark stools are not a common side effect of chemotherapy for ovarian cancer. Choice B is incorrect as using mouthwash before therapy may not be relevant to chemotherapy administration. Choice D is incorrect as flossing frequency is not directly related to chemotherapy treatment.
A nurse is caring for a client who has prostate cancer. The nurse should expect the provider to prescribe which of the following medications for this client?
- A. Tamoxifen
- B. Leuprolide
- C. Finasteride
- D. Cyclophosphamide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Leuprolide. Leuprolide is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist that suppresses testosterone production, which can help slow the growth of prostate cancer. Tamoxifen (A) is used for breast cancer, Finasteride (C) is used for benign prostatic hyperplasia, and Cyclophosphamide (D) is a chemotherapy drug for various cancers. Therefore, in this case, the most appropriate medication for prostate cancer would be Leuprolide (B).
A nurse is caring for a client who had total hip arthroplasty 1 day ago and is receiving morphine sulfate by PCA pump for pain control. The client reports nausea and vomiting. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Insert a nasogastric tube.
- B. Administer an antiemetic.
- C. Auscultate bowel sounds.
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer an antiemetic. Nausea and vomiting are common side effects of morphine sulfate. Administering an antiemetic will help relieve these symptoms without interfering with the pain control provided by the PCA pump. Inserting a nasogastric tube (choice A) is not indicated as there is no indication of bowel obstruction. Auscultating bowel sounds (choice C) is not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to ambulate (choice D) may help with bowel motility but addressing the nausea and vomiting is the immediate concern.
A nurse is preparing to administer amitriptyline 150 mg PO at bedtime. The amount available is amitriptyline 75 mg tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale: The nurse should administer 2 tablets of amitriptyline 75 mg each to achieve a total dose of 150 mg. Since each tablet is 75 mg, 2 tablets would equal 150 mg. This ensures the patient receives the prescribed dose accurately. Other choices are incorrect because administering 1 tablet would result in only 75 mg, insufficient for the prescribed dose. Administering 3 tablets would exceed the prescribed dose, leading to potential overdose. Choices above 3 tablets are also incorrect as they would significantly exceed the prescribed 150 mg dose, risking adverse effects.
Nokea