Nokea
When can a patient's medical record become a potential issue for the doctor or nurse?
- A. When the record is extensive
- B. When a medical record is subpoenaed in court
- C. When it is missing
- D. When the medical record is inaccurate, incomplete, or inadequate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A medical record becomes a potential issue for a doctor or a nurse when it is inaccurate, incomplete, or inadequate. This is because a medical record is a key tool for healthcare professionals to track a patient's history, treatment, and progress. If the record is not accurate or complete, it can lead to misdiagnosis, incorrect treatment, or other potential problems in patient care. While missing records (Choice C) could be a problem, they do not directly implicate the doctor or nurse in the same way that inaccurate or inadequate records do. An extensive record (Choice A) or a record being subpoenaed in court (Choice B) are not inherently problematic for healthcare professionals and do not necessarily reflect negatively on their work.
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When a nurse signs a consent form, which ethical principle is being observed regarding the patient?
- A. Autonomy
- B. Justice
- C. Accountability
- D. Beneficence
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Autonomy'. Autonomy refers to the patient's right to make their own decisions, which is being honored when a nurse signs a consent form. While beneficence (Choice D) is an important ethical principle that involves acting in the patient's best interest, it is not what is being primarily observed in this instance. Justice (Choice B) refers to fairness and equal treatment and is not specifically relevant to this scenario. Accountability (Choice C) pertains to being answerable for one's actions and decisions, but again, it is not the principle directly observed in this situation. Therefore, when a nurse signs a consent form, it is the principle of autonomy that is being observed.
Which of the following actions would be of highest priority with regards to the external shunt?
- A. Avoid taking blood pressure or blood sample from the arm with the shunt
- B. Instruct the patient not to exercise the arm with the shunt
- C. Heparinize the shunt daily
- D. Change the dressing of the shunt daily
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Heparinizing the shunt daily (choice C) is the highest priority action as it prevents the formation of blood clots that can occlude the shunt, leading to potential complications such as thrombosis. Avoiding taking blood pressure or blood samples from the arm with the shunt (choice A) is also important, but secondary to heparinizing the shunt. Similarly, instructing the patient not to exercise the arm with the shunt (choice B) can help prevent unnecessary strain on the shunt, but it is not as critical as preventing clot formation. Changing the dressing of the shunt daily (choice D) is a standard nursing care practice to prevent infection, but again, it is not as critical as ensuring the shunt remains patent through daily heparinization.
Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter?
- A. Self-esteem disturbance
- B. Impaired urinary elimination
- C. Impaired skin integrity
- D. Risk for infection
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Risk for infection.' An indwelling urinary catheter poses a significant risk for infection due to its invasive nature and the increased susceptibility to urinary tract infections. While 'B: Impaired urinary elimination' and 'C: Impaired skin integrity' may also be concerns for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter, the immediate risk of infection is the priority. 'A: Self-esteem disturbance' is not typically a priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with an indwelling urinary catheter because the focus is primarily on infection prevention and management to ensure patient safety and well-being.
Why does Anita stand in front of the mirror while performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE)?
- A. To check for unusual discharges from the breast
- B. To check for any obvious malignancy
- C. To observe the size and contour of the breast
- D. To check for thickness and lumps in the breast
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When performing a Breast Self-Examination (BSE), one of the reasons for standing in front of a mirror is to observe the size and contour of the breast (Choice C). This helps in identifying any visible changes or abnormalities such as dimpling, puckering, or changes in the size and shape of the breasts. While unusual discharges (Choice A) and thickness or lumps (Choice D) can be part of the changes a person might notice during a BSE, these are typically identified by palpation or by squeezing the nipple for discharge, not by just looking in the mirror. Choice B, checking for obvious malignancy, is too vague and not specific enough as malignancy is often not visible to the naked eye.
What is considered fast breathing in a 13-month-old child if the respiratory rate (RR) exceeds which value?
- A. 40 breaths per minute
- B. 50 breaths per minute
- C. 60 breaths per minute
- D. 30 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of pediatric care, a respiratory rate of more than 60 breaths per minute in a child aged 13 months is considered fast breathing, hence option 'C' is correct. Options 'A', 'B', and 'D' are incorrect as they do not meet the specified criteria for fast breathing in a 13-month-old. Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, including monitoring respiratory rates, to ensure that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.