Nokea
A nurse is caring for a client who is about to begin taking folic acid to treat megaloblastic anemia. The nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values to determine therapeutic effectiveness?
- A. Amylase level
- B. Reticulocyte count
- C. C-reactive protein
- D. Creatinine clearance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reticulocyte count. Reticulocytes are immature red blood cells, and monitoring their count can help determine the effectiveness of folic acid in treating megaloblastic anemia. Increased reticulocyte count indicates improved production of red blood cells. Amylase level, C-reactive protein, and creatinine clearance are not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of folic acid in treating megaloblastic anemia.
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A study is designed to investigate the rates of central line–associated blood stream infections among pediatric hematology/oncology patients. Three common central line types (totally implanted catheter [port], peripherally inserted central catheter [PICC], and tunneled externalized catheter [TEC]) were included in the study. What data structure is central line type?
- A. Continuous
- B. Dichotomous
- C. Nominal
- D. Ordinal
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Nominal. Central line type is a nominal data structure because it represents categories without any inherent order or ranking. In this study, the central line types (port, PICC, TEC) are distinct categories with no numerical significance or order. They are simply different types of central lines used for medical purposes. Continuous (A) data involves numerical values with infinite possibilities, which is not the case here. Dichotomous (B) data consists of only two categories, while in this study there are three central line types. Ordinal (D) data involves categories with a specific order or ranking, which is not applicable to central line types as they do not have a natural order.
A nurse should identify that clopidogrel is contraindicated for clients who have which of the following conditions?
- A. Myocardial infarction
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Pancreatitis
- D. Myasthenia gravis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Clopidogrel is contraindicated for clients with peptic ulcer disease due to its antiplatelet effect, which can increase the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Myocardial infarction, pancreatitis, and myasthenia gravis are not direct contraindications for clopidogrel. Myocardial infarction can actually be an indication for clopidogrel use to prevent further cardiovascular events. Pancreatitis and myasthenia gravis are not known to have specific contraindications with clopidogrel.
Haemolytic anemia is not produced by:
- A. penicillin
- B. lithium
- C. Quinidine
- D. methyldopa
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: lithium. Lithium is not known to cause haemolytic anemia. Penicillin (A), Quinidine (C), and methyldopa (D) are associated with causing haemolytic anemia due to various mechanisms, such as immune-mediated destruction of red blood cells. In contrast, lithium is primarily used to treat mood disorders and does not have a direct link to causing haemolytic anemia. Therefore, by process of elimination and understanding the pharmacological effects of these drugs, we can determine that lithium is the correct answer.
A newborn infant develops jaundice on day of life 2. Labs are drawn, and she has a hemoglobin of 7.4 g/dL with a reticulocyte count of 8%. Upon peripheral blood smear review, she is found to have bizarre red cell forms with significant polkilocytosis. Although her parents have normal blood counts, on review of their peripheral blood smears, they both have a moderate number of ovalocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the infant's red cell findings?
- A. She has an autosomal dominant ankyrin mutation from one of her parents causing hereditary spherocytosis.
- B. She has inherited band 3 variants from each parent and will likely need a splenectomy after she turns 5 years old.
- C. She has inherited an alpha-spectrin mutation from both of her parents and may experience an improvement in her anemia over time.
- D. She has inherited a PKLR variant from each parent, and enzyme testing will be consistent with her diagnosis of pyruvate kinase deficiency.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the infant's red cell findings of ovalocytes and polikilocytosis are consistent with hereditary elliptocytosis, which is caused by mutations in genes encoding spectrin. In this scenario, the inheritance pattern aligns with the infant receiving an alpha-spectrin mutation from both parents, leading to the observed erythrocyte abnormalities. This condition may improve over time due to compensatory mechanisms.
Choice A (autosomal dominant ankyrin mutation causing hereditary spherocytosis) is incorrect because the clinical presentation and red cell morphology do not support a diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis.
Choice B (inherited band 3 variants and need for splenectomy) is incorrect as the infant's condition does not match the characteristics of hereditary spherocytosis requiring splenectomy.
Choice D (PKLR variant and pyruvate kinase deficiency) is incorrect as the infant's red cell morphology is not indicative
Blinatumomab, a bispecific T-cell engaging molecule, is active against which CD antigen that is expressed on B-lymphoblasts?
- A. CD10
- B. CD15
- C. CD19
- D. CD20
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Blinatumomab is designed to engage T cells to target CD19 antigen on B-lymphoblasts.
2. CD19 is a specific marker expressed on B cells, making it a target for Blinatumomab.
3. CD10 is not targeted by Blinatumomab and is commonly found on early B-cell precursors.
4. CD15 and CD20 are not targeted by Blinatumomab and have different functions unrelated to B-lymphoblasts.
Summary:
- CD19 is the correct answer as it is the specific target for Blinatumomab on B-lymphoblasts.
- CD10, CD15, and CD20 are incorrect as they are not the targeted antigens for Blinatumomab and have different roles in immune function.