Nokea
A nurse is caring for several women in labor. The nurse determines that which woman is the latent phase of labor?
- A. contractions every 5 minutes, cervical dilation 3 cm
- B. contractions every 3 minutes, cervical dilation 6 cm
- C. contractions every 2 1/2 minutes, cervical dilation 8 cm
- D. contractions every 1 minute, cervical dilation 9 cm
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Contractions every 5 minutes with cervical dilation of 3 cm is typical of the latent phase of labor. This phase is characterized by early labor with mild contractions and slow cervical dilation. The other scenarios describe more advanced stages of labor with faster contractions and greater cervical dilation, indicating the active phase.
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A patient asks about the benefits of Preimplantation Genetic Testing (PGT) during IVF. What should the nurse explain?
- A. PGT is used to improve uterine health.
- B. It helps identify genetic abnormalities in embryos before transfer.
- C. PGT eliminates the need for regular fertility testing.
- D. It guarantees a healthy pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: It helps identify genetic abnormalities in embryos before transfer. PGT is used during IVF to screen embryos for genetic conditions, allowing for the selection of healthy embryos for transfer, reducing the risk of passing genetic disorders to offspring. This is a crucial benefit of PGT as it helps in making informed decisions about embryo selection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because PGT focuses on genetic screening of embryos, not on improving uterine health, eliminating the need for fertility testing, or guaranteeing a healthy pregnancy.
Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
- A. Never conceived.
- B. Had repeated spontaneous abortions.
- C. Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
- D. Has one child but cannot conceive a second time.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because secondary infertility refers to the inability of a couple to conceive after having one or more children without any fertility issues. This situation indicates that the couple had a successful pregnancy in the past but is now facing difficulties conceiving again.
A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Never conceived - This does not align with the definition of secondary infertility as it involves a previous successful pregnancy.
B: Had repeated spontaneous abortions - This refers to recurrent pregnancy loss, not secondary infertility.
C: Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse - This describes primary infertility, not secondary infertility.
A patient and her husband request to view the results of their infant's karyotype. An aneuploidy was noted. The nurse understands the results to indicate what?
- A. An abnormal number of chromosomes were present on the karyogram.
- B. Translocations were noted on some of the chromosomes.
- C. The infant's chromosomes had broken areas, causing an abnormality in the picture of the chromosomes.
- D. Some of the infant's chromosomes were duplicated to total 46 chromosomes.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A karyotype is a visual representation of an individual's chromosomes. An aneuploidy indicates an abnormal number of chromosomes, which can result in genetic disorders such as Down syndrome. A karyotype shows the number, size, and shape of chromosomes, so an abnormal number of chromosomes on the karyogram is the correct interpretation.
Summary of Other Choices:
B: Translocations involve the movement of genetic material between chromosomes, not an abnormal number of chromosomes.
C: Chromosomal breaks would not typically result in an aneuploidy but rather structural abnormalities.
D: Duplication of chromosomes to total 46 would not lead to aneuploidy but rather a normal chromosome count.
The nurse educator is conducting a class for student nurses on X-linked recessive disorders. Which responses from a student nurse indicate that further education is needed?
- A. The male can't be a carrier if he doesn't have an X-linked disorder.
- B. If the male doesn't have an X-linked disorder, then his children won't either.
- C. If the female is a carrier, her daughter could be one too.
- D. If the female is a carrier, her sons may have an X-linked recessive disorder.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is incorrect to assume that if a male doesn't have an X-linked disorder, then his children won't either. This statement overlooks the fact that the male could carry the recessive gene and pass it on to his daughters, who could then become carriers. This demonstrates a lack of understanding of how X-linked recessive disorders are inherited.
A: This statement is correct as males cannot be carriers of X-linked recessive disorders.
C: This statement is correct as females who are carriers have a 50% chance of passing on the recessive gene to their daughters.
D: This statement is correct as sons of carrier females have a 50% chance of inheriting the X-linked recessive disorder.
A patient undergoing ovarian stimulation is concerned about side effects. What should the nurse include in patient education?
- A. Side effects are rare and do not require monitoring.
- B. Mild bloating and mood changes are common during stimulation.
- C. The risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) is negligible.
- D. Stimulation guarantees the production of high-quality eggs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale:
Bloating and mood changes are common side effects of ovarian stimulation due to hormonal changes. Educating the patient about this prepares them for possible discomfort. Incorrect choices: A is incorrect as side effects are common and may require monitoring. C is incorrect as OHSS is a potential serious complication. D is incorrect as stimulation does not guarantee egg quality.