A nurse is discussing adverse reactions to pain medications in older adult clients with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as risk factors for an adverse drug reaction? (SATA)
- A. Polypharmacy
- B. Increased rate of absorption
- C. Decreased percentage of body fat
- D. Multiple health problems
Correct Answer: A,C,D,E
Rationale: To determine risk factors for adverse drug reactions in older adults, consider the following:
A: Polypharmacy increases the likelihood of drug interactions and adverse effects.
C: Decreased body fat can affect drug distribution, leading to higher drug concentrations.
D: Multiple health problems may require multiple medications, increasing the risk of adverse reactions.
E: Age-related changes in liver and kidney function can affect drug metabolism and excretion.
Other choices are incorrect because increased rate of absorption does not necessarily increase risk and choices F and G were not provided.
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A nurse is instructing a client who has a new prescription for a daily dose of lovastatin extended-release. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You will need liver function tests before beginning therapy.
- B. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
- C. You may crush the medication and mix it with applesauce.
- D. You should take the medication in the morning.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: You will need liver function tests before beginning therapy. This is important because lovastatin, a statin medication, can potentially cause liver damage. Liver function tests are necessary to monitor for any signs of liver toxicity. Choice B is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between lovastatin and dairy products. Choice C is incorrect as lovastatin extended-release should not be crushed as it may affect its effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific time of the day required to take lovastatin.
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure. The nurse administered furosemide 60 mg IV bolus 30 min earlier. For which of the following findings should the nurse notify the provider?
- A. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L
- B. The client reports dizziness upon standing.
- C. The client reports difficulty hearing.
- D. BUN 15 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The client reports difficulty hearing. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to hearing loss. The nurse should notify the provider immediately to prevent further damage. A: Potassium level is within normal range. B: Dizziness upon standing can be expected due to volume loss. D: BUN level is normal and not a priority.
A nurse is caring for a client receiving gentamicin. Which of the following should the nurse monitor the client for?
- A. Prostephobia
- B. Tireibus
- C. Polyuria
- D. Tathyramda
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Polyuria. Gentamicin is an antibiotic known to potentially cause kidney damage, leading to impaired kidney function and decreased urine output. Therefore, monitoring for polyuria (excessive urine output) is crucial to assess the client's renal function. Prostephobia, Tireibus, and Tathyramda are not known side effects or complications associated with gentamicin use. Prostephobia is not a medical term, and Tireibus and Tathyramda are not relevant to gentamicin therapy. The nurse should focus on monitoring the client for signs of kidney damage, such as changes in urine output, in this scenario.
A nurse is preparing to administer potassium chloride elixir 20 mEq/day PO to divide equally every 12 hr. Available is 6.7 mEq/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round to the nearest tenth.)
Correct Answer: 7.5
Rationale: The correct answer is 7.5 mL. To determine this, first calculate the total daily dose: 20 mEq/day ÷ 2 doses/day = 10 mEq/dose. Next, find the mL per dose using the available concentration: 10 mEq ÷ 6.7 mEq/5 mL = 7.46 mL, which rounds to 7.5 mL. This ensures the patient receives the correct dose of potassium chloride elixir. Other choices are incorrect because they do not follow the correct calculation or rounding process, leading to potential under or overdosing.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the administration of omeprazole. Which of the following should the nurse include?
- A. You cannot take this medication with an antacid.
- B. You should reduce your intake of calcium while taking this medication.
- C. You should take this medication before meals.
- D. You can take a second dose if symptoms persist up to 2 hours after the first dose.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Choice C is correct because omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works best when taken before meals to inhibit gastric acid secretion. This timing ensures optimal effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate because omeprazole can be taken with antacids, but it is recommended to be taken separately. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to reduce calcium intake while taking omeprazole. Choice D is incorrect as taking a second dose without medical advice may lead to overdosing and adverse effects.