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A nurse is interested in working in a large trauma center that is unionized but does not want to join the union or pay fees. She accepts the position but is not required to join or pay fees to the union based on which law?
- A. National Labor Relations Act
- B. Right-to-work law
- C. National Labor Relations Act
- D. Taft-Hartley Act
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Right-to-work law. This law prohibits requiring union membership or payment of union fees as a condition of employment. The nurse can work in the unionized trauma center without being obligated to join or pay fees due to the provisions of the Right-to-work law.
A: National Labor Relations Act - This act protects the rights of employees to join or form unions but does not specifically address the issue of mandatory union membership or fees.
C: National Labor Relations Act - This is a duplicate choice.
D: Taft-Hartley Act - This act regulates labor unions but does not specifically address the issue of mandatory union membership or fees.
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When reading about nursing as a career, a student is interested in learning about violence in the profession. Which statement accurately reflects violence in health care and the profession of nursing?
- A. Nursing is the most trusted profession and therefore violence is rare.
- B. All nurses should be advocates for violence prevention programs.
- C. Physical violence between peers constitutes lateral violence; however, verbal assault is not recognized as violence.
- D. Professional organizations have recognized a need to evaluate all nurses for the risk of committing acts of violence.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because nurses play a crucial role in advocating for violence prevention programs to create a safe work environment. Nurses can raise awareness, implement policies, and support victims.
Incorrect answers:
A: Trust in nursing doesn't prevent violence. Violence can still occur due to various factors.
C: Verbal assault is recognized as a form of violence in the nursing profession.
D: Evaluating all nurses for the risk of committing violence may not be feasible or effective in preventing violence.
A nurse moves from California to Arkansas and due to having 20 years of experience as a registered nurse is immediately placed in charge of the telemetry unit. The staffing consists of LPNs and two unlicensed assistive personnel. The RN is unsure of the scope of practice of the LPNs and reviews the nurse practice act for Arkansas, which lacks clarity on some tasks. The RN should:
- A. query the state nursing association to determine their stance on the role of LPNs.
- B. ask the LPNs on the unit to list what tasks they routinely performed.
- C. contact the state board of nursing to determine legal scope of practice for LPNs.
- D. refer to California's nurse practice act because the scope of LPNs/LVNs is consistent across the United States.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: contact the state board of nursing to determine legal scope of practice for LPNs. This is the most appropriate action because the state board of nursing is the authoritative body that governs nursing practice within a specific state. By contacting the board, the RN can get accurate and up-to-date information on the legal scope of practice for LPNs in Arkansas. This ensures compliance with state regulations and avoids any potential legal issues.
A: Querying the state nursing association may provide some insight, but the state board of nursing is the official entity that regulates nursing practice.
B: Asking the LPNs about their tasks may not provide a comprehensive understanding of their legal scope of practice and could lead to misunderstandings.
D: Referring to California's nurse practice act is irrelevant as each state has its own regulations, and assuming consistency across states can lead to incorrect assumptions.
A new graduate nurse is preparing for an interview for her first position and knows that: (select all that apply)
- A. the primary goal for the first job is to complete orientation and should be considered as an extension of nursing school.
- B. appointments for interviews should be scheduled immediately after graduation to avoid rushing into a position.
- C. self-confidence can be improved with self-talk, which reminds the graduate that peers from her school are effective practitioners.
- D. work history of even nonmedical positions can demonstrate commitment and reliability so letters from these employers should be in portfolio.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the primary goal for a new graduate nurse in their first job is to successfully complete the orientation process. This is crucial for transitioning from the academic setting to the professional nursing environment. Completing orientation ensures that the nurse is equipped with the necessary knowledge and skills to provide safe and effective patient care.
Choice B is incorrect because scheduling interviews immediately after graduation may not allow the nurse enough time to prepare adequately for the interview process.
Choice C is incorrect because while self-confidence is important, relying solely on past achievements of peers may not be a sustainable source of confidence in a new work environment.
Choice D is incorrect because while work history and letters of recommendation can be valuable, they may not necessarily be the primary focus during the initial stages of a new nurse's career.
Customer satisfaction is primarily based on:
- A. access to modern, up-to-date facilities.
- B. availability of an extensive menu selection.
- C. personal interactions with employees.
- D. having to undergo fewer invasive procedures.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: personal interactions with employees. Customer satisfaction is primarily influenced by the quality of interactions with employees as it shapes the overall experience. Positive interactions build trust, rapport, and a sense of care which directly impact satisfaction levels. This human element creates a more personalized and engaging experience for customers, leading to higher satisfaction rates. Access to modern facilities (A) and an extensive menu selection (B) may enhance the overall customer experience but do not directly address the core factor of personal interactions. Having to undergo fewer invasive procedures (D) is not relevant to customer satisfaction in this context.
A nurse who is conducting a staff in-service on the phases of a disaster continuum teaches participants that, during the impact/response stage, activities focus on:
- A. community awareness in anticipation of a terrorist attack or natural disaster.
- B. determining the effectiveness of the disaster medical assistance team (DMAT).
- C. the use of an all-hazards approach.
- D. initiating response activities.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because during the impact/response stage of a disaster, the main focus is on initiating immediate response activities to address the immediate needs of individuals affected by the disaster. This includes activities such as search and rescue, providing medical care, and establishing emergency shelters.
Choice A is incorrect because community awareness and anticipation of disasters typically occur during the preparedness phase, not the impact/response stage.
Choice B is incorrect because determining the effectiveness of DMAT is more relevant to the recovery phase of a disaster, not the immediate response phase.
Choice C is incorrect because the all-hazards approach refers to a comprehensive strategy for addressing various types of disasters, but it does not specifically relate to the activities carried out during the impact/response stage of a disaster.