Nokea
A nurse is monitoring a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her blood work reveals a glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) of 10%. The nurse knows this blood work indicates which of the following?
- A. A normal value indicating that the client is managing blood glucose control well
- B. A low value indicating that the client is not managing blood glucose control very well
- C. A high value indicating that the client is not managing blood glucose control very well
- D. The value does not offer information regarding client management of her disease
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale:
1. HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months.
2. A value of 10% indicates poor blood glucose control.
3. High HbA1c (like 10%) signifies uncontrolled diabetes.
4. Choice C is correct due to the high HbA1c value.
Summary:
A: Incorrect as 10% is high, not normal.
B: Incorrect, as 10% is high, not low.
D: Incorrect, as HbA1c does offer information regarding diabetes management.
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The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a 28-year-old client who received methotrexate for an ectopic pregnancy. Which should the discharge instructions include?
- A. Make sure to take folic acid
- B. Make an appointment to see her provider in 6 weeks
- C. Flush the toilet twice after she urinates for the next 24 hours
- D. Resume all activity in 48 hours
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Flush the toilet twice after she urinates for the next 24 hours. Methotrexate is excreted in urine and can be harmful if it comes into contact with others. Flushing the toilet twice helps to minimize the risk of exposure to others. Choice A is incorrect because although folic acid supplementation may be necessary with methotrexate, it is not the priority in this scenario. Choice B is incorrect as the client should be advised to seek immediate medical attention if any concerning symptoms occur, rather than waiting for 6 weeks. Choice D is incorrect as the client needs to avoid certain activities for a period of time after receiving methotrexate to prevent complications.
A nurse is caring for a client who is G1P0 and 36 weeks gestation who has been diagnosed with severe pre-eclampsia. Her blood pressure is 165/110. The physician has ordered hydralazine. The nurse knows she should do which of the following when administering this medication?
- A. Position the client supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees.
- B. Get baseline blood pressure and pulse and monitor frequently during administration.
- C. Administer medication every 5 minutes until blood pressure is stabilized.
- D. Inform the client that this may cause a positive direct Coombs test result.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Getting baseline blood pressure and pulse and monitoring frequently during administration is crucial because hydralazine is a potent antihypertensive medication that can cause significant drops in blood pressure. Monitoring allows for early detection of hypotension or adverse reactions.
A is incorrect because positioning the client supine with the head of the bed elevated 30 degrees is not specific to the administration of hydralazine for pre-eclampsia.
C is incorrect because administering medication every 5 minutes until blood pressure is stabilized is not a standard protocol for hydralazine administration; it should be given as per physician's orders with appropriate monitoring.
D is incorrect because informing the client about a positive direct Coombs test result is not relevant to the administration of hydralazine; this is more pertinent to medications that can cause hemolytic anemia.
A nurse is caring for a client who is 32 weeks gestation who comes to the emergency department for painful bleeding. Which is the priority nursing assessment?
- A. Monitor for contractions
- B. Assess pain level
- C. Assess for hemorrhage
- D. Provide emotional support
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct priority nursing assessment in this scenario is to assess for hemorrhage (Choice C). This is crucial because painful bleeding in a client at 32 weeks gestation could indicate a potential life-threatening situation such as placental abruption or placenta previa. Assessing for hemorrhage involves checking the amount and type of bleeding, vital signs, and signs of shock. It is essential to identify and address hemorrhage promptly to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby.
Monitoring for contractions (Choice A) is important but assessing for hemorrhage takes precedence due to the immediate risk it poses. Assessing the pain level (Choice B) is secondary to assessing for hemorrhage in this case. Providing emotional support (Choice D) is important but should come after ensuring the client's physical well-being is addressed.
The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected hydatidiform mole. Based on the diagnosis, what does the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply.
- A. Dark brown vaginal bleeding
- B. Strong fetal heart tones
- C. Fundal height larger than expected
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease.
2. It results in the abnormal growth of placental tissue instead of a fetus.
3. As there is no fetus, there won't be any fetal heart tones.
4. Therefore, the nurse anticipates absence of fetal heart tones.
Summary:
A: Dark brown vaginal bleeding is not specific to hydatidiform mole.
C: Fundal height larger than expected is not a typical sign of hydatidiform mole.
D: Elevated blood pressure is not directly associated with hydatidiform mole.
The labor and delivery nurse reviews a client’s prenatal records and notes that the client had a positive GBS culture at 27 weeks gestation. Based on current guidelines, what is the recommended plan?
- A. Send a GBS to the laboratory immediately
- B. Prepare to administer penicillin prophylactically
- C. Determine if a follow-up culture was done at 38 weeks gestation
- D. Determine if the patient received antibiotics for the positive strep
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare to administer penicillin prophylactically. This is the recommended plan because current guidelines suggest administering intrapartum prophylaxis with penicillin for GBS-positive pregnant women to prevent neonatal GBS disease. Choice A is incorrect because sending a GBS to the laboratory immediately is unnecessary since the previous positive culture result is already known. Choice C is incorrect because follow-up cultures are not routinely recommended at 38 weeks gestation. Choice D is incorrect because determining if the patient received antibiotics for the positive strep does not address the need for intrapartum prophylaxis specifically with penicillin.