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A nurse is offering preconception counseling in a primary care clinic. Which statement by a patient indicates a need for correction?
- A. Pregnancy rates are not related to the age of the male partner.
- B. Sexually active males should be routinely tested for STIs and treated appropriately.
- C. Maintaining a healthy weight is important for the reproductive health of both female and male partners.
- D. Certain medications, such as testosterone supplementation and chemotherapy, can impact male fertility.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pregnancy rates are indeed related to the age of the male partner because sperm quality and quantity decline with age. This is crucial information in preconception counseling. Choice B is correct as STI testing for sexually active males is important for reproductive health. Choice C is correct as maintaining a healthy weight is crucial for both partners' fertility. Choice D is correct as certain medications can impact male fertility. In summary, the incorrect choice (A) contradicts established knowledge about male age and fertility, making it the correct answer.
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A patient asks about the benefits of time-lapse embryo monitoring in IVF. What should the nurse highlight?
- A. It guarantees successful implantation of embryos.
- B. It allows continuous observation of embryo development without disturbing the culture environment.
- C. It eliminates the need for hormone support during IVF.
- D. It shortens the time required for fertilization.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because time-lapse embryo monitoring in IVF allows continuous observation of embryo development without disturbing the culture environment. This is crucial as it provides real-time data on embryo growth and helps in selecting the healthiest embryos for transfer. Choice A is incorrect as implantation success is not guaranteed by monitoring alone. Choice C is incorrect as hormone support is still needed in IVF. Choice D is incorrect as time-lapse monitoring does not affect the fertilization process itself.
A client's amniocentesis results were reported as 46, XY. Her obstetrician informed her at the time that everything 'looks good.' Shortly after birth the baby is diagnosed with cerebral palsy. Which of the following responses will explain this result?
- A. It is likely that the client received the wrong amniocentesis results.
- B. Cerebral palsy is not a genetic disease.
- C. The genes that cause cerebral palsy have not yet been discovered.
- D. The genetics lab failed to test for cerebral palsy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cerebral palsy is not typically caused by genetic factors.
A nurse is discussing lifestyle changes to optimize fertility. Which recommendation is accurate?
- A. Avoid moderate exercise to conserve energy for conception.
- B. Quit smoking to improve reproductive health.
- C. Eliminate all carbohydrates from the diet.
- D. Increase caffeine intake to boost energy levels.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
- Smoking is known to have negative effects on reproductive health, reducing fertility in both men and women.
- Quitting smoking can improve reproductive outcomes and increase chances of conception.
- Smoking can harm egg and sperm quality, leading to infertility issues.
- Other choices are incorrect as moderate exercise, carbohydrates, and increased caffeine intake do not directly impact fertility.
What is the purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments?
- A. To trigger ovulation directly.
- B. To prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation.
- C. To stimulate the growth of the uterine lining.
- D. To improve egg quality in natural cycles.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments is to prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation. GnRH antagonists work by blocking the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which can trigger premature ovulation. This allows for better control of the timing of ovulation in assisted reproductive techniques.
Choice A is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not trigger ovulation directly; they prevent it. Choice C is incorrect because stimulating the growth of the uterine lining is typically achieved through other medications like estrogen. Choice D is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not directly improve egg quality; they primarily target ovulation timing.
During infertility counseling, the nurse explains the purpose of an HSG (hysterosalpingogram). What is the best explanation?
- A. It evaluates ovarian function and hormone levels.
- B. It assesses the structure and patency of the uterus and fallopian tubes.
- C. It determines the timing of ovulation for insemination.
- D. It monitors fetal development during early pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is B because an HSG is used to visualize the structure and patency of the uterus and fallopian tubes, helping to diagnose causes of infertility such as tubal blockages or abnormalities. A is incorrect because HSG does not assess ovarian function or hormone levels. C is incorrect as HSG does not determine ovulation timing but rather evaluates tubal patency. D is incorrect because HSG is not used to monitor fetal development.