Nokea
The procedure in which ova are removed by laparoscopy, mixed with sperm, and the embryo(s) returned to the woman's uterus is
- A. in vitro fertilization (IVF).
- B. tubal embryo transfer (TET).
- C. therapeutic insemination (IUI).
- D. gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: in vitro fertilization (IVF). In IVF, ova are retrieved via laparoscopy, fertilized with sperm in a lab dish, and then the resulting embryo(s) are transferred back to the woman's uterus. This process allows for fertilization to occur outside the body.
Incorrect choices:
B: Tubal embryo transfer (TET) involves transferring embryos directly into the fallopian tubes, not the uterus.
C: Therapeutic insemination (IUI) is the process of injecting sperm directly into the uterus, not involving the removal and fertilization of ova.
D: Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) involves transferring both eggs and sperm into the fallopian tubes for fertilization to occur internally, not in a lab dish.
You may also like to solve these questions
What is the purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments?
- A. To trigger ovulation directly.
- B. To prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation.
- C. To stimulate the growth of the uterine lining.
- D. To improve egg quality in natural cycles.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments is to prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation. GnRH antagonists work by blocking the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which can trigger premature ovulation. This allows for better control of the timing of ovulation in assisted reproductive techniques.
Choice A is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not trigger ovulation directly; they prevent it. Choice C is incorrect because stimulating the growth of the uterine lining is typically achieved through other medications like estrogen. Choice D is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not directly improve egg quality; they primarily target ovulation timing.
During preconception counseling, a patient asks about the impact of caffeine on fertility. What should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Moderate caffeine intake is generally considered safe.
- B. Caffeine improves ovulation and increases conception chances.
- C. All caffeine should be eliminated to conceive successfully.
- D. Caffeine intake only affects male fertility.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Moderate caffeine intake is generally considered safe during preconception as excessive intake may affect fertility.
2. Studies show that moderate caffeine consumption doesn't significantly impact fertility.
3. Advising complete elimination may be overly restrictive and challenging for patients.
4. Caffeine can affect both male and female fertility, not just male fertility.
5. Emphasizing moderation allows for informed decision-making and realistic lifestyle changes.
Summary of other choices:
B: Incorrect - Caffeine does not improve ovulation or increase conception chances.
C: Incorrect - Complete elimination of caffeine is unnecessary for successful conception.
D: Incorrect - Caffeine intake can affect both male and female fertility, not limited to male fertility.
A provider has ordered diagnostic procedures for a couple with suspected infertility. Which test is useful for determining if ovulation has occurred?
- A. FSH level
- B. Progesterone level
- C. Estrogen level
- D. Vaginal ultrasound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Progesterone level. Progesterone is released after ovulation, indicating that ovulation has occurred. Monitoring progesterone levels can confirm ovulation timing. FSH (A) is more related to ovarian reserve. Estrogen (C) levels fluctuate during the menstrual cycle. Vaginal ultrasound (D) can visualize ovarian follicles but does not confirm ovulation.
During IVF, a patient asks about the role of estrogen in preparing for embryo transfer. What should the nurse explain?
- A. Estrogen helps regulate ovarian stimulation protocols.
- B. Estrogen thickens the uterine lining, creating a supportive environment for implantation.
- C. Estrogen prevents premature ovulation during stimulation cycles.
- D. Estrogen eliminates the need for progesterone support post-transfer.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because estrogen plays a crucial role in thickening the uterine lining, creating a supportive environment for embryo implantation during IVF. This is essential for successful pregnancy. Estrogen does not directly regulate ovarian stimulation protocols (choice A), prevent premature ovulation (choice C), or eliminate the need for progesterone support post-transfer (choice D). Estrogen primarily focuses on preparing the uterus for implantation rather than affecting other aspects of the IVF process.
A patient undergoing infertility treatment asks about the importance of stress management. What should the nurse explain?
- A. Stress has no impact on fertility treatment outcomes.
- B. Stress can negatively affect hormone levels and ovulation.
- C. Managing stress is only important after conception occurs.
- D. Stress is a common cause of infertility in both partners.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because stress can indeed negatively affect hormone levels and ovulation, thereby impacting fertility treatment outcomes. High levels of stress can disrupt the delicate balance of hormones involved in the reproductive process, leading to irregular ovulation and potentially hindering conception. It is essential for patients undergoing infertility treatment to manage stress effectively to optimize their chances of success.
Choice A is incorrect because research suggests that stress can impact fertility treatment outcomes. Choice C is incorrect as stress management is important throughout the fertility treatment process, not just after conception. Choice D is incorrect because while stress can contribute to infertility, it is not always the primary cause and can affect fertility differently in each partner.