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When assessing cervical effacement of a client in labor, the nurse assesses which characteristic?
- A. extent of opening to its widest diameter
- B. degree of thinning
- C. passage of the mucous plug
- D. fetal presenting part
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cervical effacement refers to the degree of thinning of the cervix, not the extent of opening. This assessment is important in determining progress in labor. The other options are not related to cervical effacement.
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A patient undergoing infertility treatment asks about the importance of stress management. What should the nurse explain?
- A. Stress has no impact on fertility treatment outcomes.
- B. Stress can negatively affect hormone levels and ovulation.
- C. Managing stress is only important after conception occurs.
- D. Stress is a common cause of infertility in both partners.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because stress can indeed negatively affect hormone levels and ovulation, thereby impacting fertility treatment outcomes. High levels of stress can disrupt the delicate balance of hormones involved in the reproductive process, leading to irregular ovulation and potentially hindering conception. It is essential for patients undergoing infertility treatment to manage stress effectively to optimize their chances of success.
Choice A is incorrect because research suggests that stress can impact fertility treatment outcomes. Choice C is incorrect as stress management is important throughout the fertility treatment process, not just after conception. Choice D is incorrect because while stress can contribute to infertility, it is not always the primary cause and can affect fertility differently in each partner.
A nurse is counseling a couple on lifestyle modifications to improve fertility. Which recommendation is most appropriate?
- A. Increase caffeine intake for better energy.
- B. Maintain a healthy weight and avoid smoking.
- C. Engage in intensive daily exercise.
- D. Focus solely on timing of intercourse.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Maintain a healthy weight and avoid smoking. This recommendation is most appropriate because both factors significantly impact fertility. Being at a healthy weight improves hormonal balance and ovulation, while smoking can harm sperm quality and reduce fertility.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
A: Increasing caffeine intake may negatively affect fertility, as high levels of caffeine have been linked to reduced fertility in both men and women.
C: Engaging in intensive daily exercise can actually disrupt menstrual cycles and ovulation, negatively impacting fertility.
D: Focusing solely on timing of intercourse overlooks the importance of overall lifestyle factors that can affect fertility, such as diet, weight, and smoking.
A nurse is offering preconception counseling in a primary care clinic. Which statement by a patient indicates a need for correction?
- A. Pregnancy rates are not related to the age of the male partner.
- B. Sexually active males should be routinely tested for STIs and treated appropriately.
- C. Maintaining a healthy weight is important for the reproductive health of both female and male partners.
- D. Certain medications, such as testosterone supplementation and chemotherapy, can impact male fertility.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pregnancy rates are indeed related to the age of the male partner because sperm quality and quantity decline with age. This is crucial information in preconception counseling. Choice B is correct as STI testing for sexually active males is important for reproductive health. Choice C is correct as maintaining a healthy weight is crucial for both partners' fertility. Choice D is correct as certain medications can impact male fertility. In summary, the incorrect choice (A) contradicts established knowledge about male age and fertility, making it the correct answer.
What is the purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments?
- A. To trigger ovulation directly.
- B. To prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation.
- C. To stimulate the growth of the uterine lining.
- D. To improve egg quality in natural cycles.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments is to prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation. GnRH antagonists work by blocking the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which can trigger premature ovulation. This allows for better control of the timing of ovulation in assisted reproductive techniques.
Choice A is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not trigger ovulation directly; they prevent it. Choice C is incorrect because stimulating the growth of the uterine lining is typically achieved through other medications like estrogen. Choice D is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not directly improve egg quality; they primarily target ovulation timing.
A nurse is providing care to a woman in labor. After assessment of the fetus, the nurse documents the fetal lie. Which term would the nurse use?
- A. flexion
- B. extension
- C. longitudinal
- D. cephalic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because fetal lie refers to the relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother. The primary lies are longitudinal, oblique, and transverse. Flexion and extension are terms used to describe fetal attitude, while cephalic is used to describe fetal presentation.