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A nurse is preparing a patient diagnosed with benign
- A. When about 80% of the nephrons are no longer prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) for a lower urinary tract functioning cystoscopic examination. The nurse informs the patient that the most common temporary complication
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
1. BPH can cause urinary symptoms.
2. Cystoscopy is a common diagnostic test.
3. Temporary complications include UTI or urinary retention.
4. BPH affects a significant number of nephrons.
5. Choice A aligns with BPH pathophysiology and common complications.
Summary:
- Choice A is correct due to BPH affecting nephrons and causing urinary symptoms leading to temporary complications like UTI. Other choices lack relevance to BPH or its complications.
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Which of the following drug that acts by inhibiting HIV protease enzyme?
- A. Lamivudine
- B. Efavirenz
- C. Stavudine
- D. Ritonavir
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale:
1. Ritonavir is a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment.
2. It works by inhibiting the HIV protease enzyme, preventing viral replication.
3. Lamivudine, Efavirenz, and Stavudine are not protease inhibitors but work through different mechanisms.
4. Lamivudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, Efavirenz is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor, and Stavudine is another nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
Summary:
Ritonavir is the correct answer as it directly targets the HIV protease enzyme, unlike the other options which act on reverse transcriptase enzymes.
A 20 year old male patient is diagnosed with Chaga’s disease, American trypanosomiasis. Which drug would be the most appropriate for this patient?
- A. Nifurtimox
- B. Metronidazole
- C. Suramin
- D. Chloroquine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nifurtimox. Nifurtimox is the first-line treatment for Chagas disease caused by Trypanosoma cruzi. It is effective in treating both acute and chronic phases of the disease by reducing parasitemia. Metronidazole (B) is used for anaerobic bacterial infections, not trypanosomiasis. Suramin (C) is used for African trypanosomiasis, not American trypanosomiasis. Chloroquine (D) is used for malaria, not trypanosomiasis. Therefore, A is the most appropriate choice for this patient.
When the nurse is performing a genital examination on a male patient, the patient has an erection. The nurse’s most appropriate action or response is to:
- A. Ask the patient if he would like someone else to examine him.
- B. Continue with the examination as though nothing has happened.
- C. Stop the examination, leave the room while stating that the examination will resume at a later time.
- D. Reassure the patient that this is a normal response and continue with the examination.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. This is the most appropriate action because it acknowledges the patient's normal physiological response and reassures him. It helps maintain professionalism and respect for the patient's dignity. Choice A could potentially embarrass the patient further. Choice B may ignore the patient's discomfort. Choice C abruptly halts the examination without addressing the situation. Overall, choice D is the most respectful and professional response in this scenario.
Which of the following fungicidal drug that acts by inhibiting fungal squalene epoxidase enzyme and is the drug of choice for onychomycosis of the toe nails in 56 year old woman with diabetes?
- A. Griseofulvin
- B. Terbinafine
- C. Itraconazole
- D. Amphotericin B
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Terbinafine is a fungicidal drug that inhibits fungal squalene epoxidase enzyme, disrupting fungal cell membrane synthesis.
Step 2: Onychomycosis of toenails is a common fungal infection that terbinafine is specifically effective against.
Step 3: The patient being a 56-year-old woman with diabetes may require a drug with good efficacy and safety profile, making terbinafine an appropriate choice.
Step 4: Griseofulvin (A) works by disrupting microtubule function, not inhibiting squalene epoxidase. Itraconazole (C) is an azole antifungal that inhibits ergosterol synthesis, not squalene epoxidase. Amphotericin B (D) is a polyene antifungal used for systemic mycoses, not onychomycosis.
The primary role of the phosphate buffer system is to?
- A. buffer stomach acid
- B. buffer carbonic acid formed by carbon dioxide
- C. limit pH changes caused by metabolic and fixed acids
- D. buffer the urine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: limit pH changes caused by metabolic and fixed acids.
1. Phosphate buffer system consists of dihydrogen phosphate (H2PO4-) and hydrogen phosphate (HPO4^2-) ions, which can donate or accept H+ ions to maintain a stable pH.
2. Metabolic and fixed acids produced in the body can lead to pH changes. The phosphate buffer system helps to prevent drastic changes in pH by neutralizing excess H+ ions.
3. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because the phosphate buffer system is not specifically designed to buffer stomach acid, carbonic acid formed by carbon dioxide, or buffer the urine.