ATI Hematologic System Quizlet

ATI Hematologic System Quizlet Related

Review ATI Hematologic System Quizlet related questions and content

A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of desmopressin to a client who has hemophilia A. The client's laboratory results indicate that the client has a sodium level of 130 mEq/L. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

  • A. Clarify the prescription with the provider.
  • B. Administer the drug with an analgesic.
  • C. Administer the required dose orally.
  • D. Assess factor IX levels.
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clarify the prescription with the provider. Desmopressin is a medication that can cause hyponatremia, especially in patients with low sodium levels like this client. Before administering desmopressin, the nurse should consult with the provider to ensure it is safe to administer the medication given the client's sodium level. Administering the drug without clarifying may worsen the hyponatremia.

Choice B is incorrect because administering the drug with an analgesic is not necessary or relevant in this situation. Choice C is incorrect because desmopressin is typically administered via injection, not orally. Choice D is incorrect because assessing factor IX levels is not directly related to the administration of desmopressin in this scenario.

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Which of the following is associated with normocytic normochromic anaemia?

  • A. Iron deficiency
  • B. Primaquine
  • C. Pregnancy
  • D. Sickle cell disease
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Normocytic normochromic anemia is characterized by normal-sized red blood cells with normal hemoglobin content. Pregnancy is associated with increased blood volume and physiological hemodilution, leading to normocytic normochromic anemia. Iron deficiency (choice A) typically presents as microcytic hypochromic anemia. Primaquine (choice B) is associated with hemolytic anemia. Sickle cell disease (choice D) is characterized by sickle-shaped red blood cells and is associated with hemolytic anemia, making it different from normocytic normochromic anemia.

A hospitalized client has a platelet count of 58,000/mm3 (58 × 109/L). What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

  • A. Encourage high-protein foods.
  • B. Institute neutropenic precautions.
  • C. Limit visitors to healthy adults.
  • D. Place the client on safety precautions.
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Place the client on safety precautions. With a platelet count of 58,000/mm3, the client is at risk for bleeding due to thrombocytopenia. Placing the client on safety precautions will help prevent injuries and minimize bleeding risks. This includes using a soft-bristled toothbrush, avoiding IM injections, and using caution with activities that may cause trauma.

A: Encouraging high-protein foods is not directly related to managing the client's thrombocytopenia.
B: Neutropenic precautions are for clients with low white blood cell counts, not low platelet counts.
C: Limiting visitors to healthy adults is important for clients with compromised immune systems, not specifically for thrombocytopenia.

Splenectomy is contraindicated in:

  • A. pyruvate kinase def.
  • B. ITP
  • C. BM failure
  • D. angiogenic myeloid metaplasia
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: BM failure. Splenectomy is contraindicated in patients with bone marrow failure due to conditions such as aplastic anemia or myelodysplastic syndromes. The spleen plays a role in removing abnormal blood cells, and removing it can worsen cytopenias in these patients. Choices A, B, and D are not contraindications for splenectomy as they do not directly involve the bone marrow function. Pyruvate kinase deficiency (A) does not affect bone marrow function, ITP (B) is a platelet disorder, and angiogenic myeloid metaplasia (D) is a condition related to abnormal blood cell production, not bone marrow failure.

A patient receiving blood complains of dyspnea. The nurse auscultates the patient's lungs and finds crackles that were not present before the start of the transfusion. Which type of reaction should the nurse suspect?

  • A. Urticarial
  • B. Hemolytic
  • C. Anaphylactic
  • D. Circulatory overload
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Circulatory overload. This type of reaction occurs when the patient receives blood too quickly, leading to fluid overload in the circulatory system. The dyspnea and crackles are indicative of pulmonary edema, a common symptom of circulatory overload. Urticarial reaction (choice A) presents with hives, not dyspnea. Hemolytic reaction (choice B) involves the destruction of red blood cells, not fluid overload. Anaphylactic reaction (choice C) is a severe allergic reaction that includes symptoms like hives, swelling, and hypotension, but not typically pulmonary edema.

Which is not associated with hypersplenism:

  • A. splenomegaly
  • B. pancytopenia
  • C. hyper cellular bone marrow
  • D. reversibility by splenectomy
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. Hypersplenism is characterized by splenomegaly (A), causing sequestration and destruction of blood cells.
2. Pancytopenia (B) results from excessive destruction of blood cells in the enlarged spleen.
3. Hypercellular bone marrow (C) is not directly associated with hypersplenism; it is a compensatory response to increased blood cell destruction.
4. Splenectomy (D) can reverse the effects of hypersplenism by removing the source of blood cell destruction.
Therefore, the correct answer is C as hypercellular bone marrow is a secondary response to hypersplenism, not a direct association.

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