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A patient with a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is being treated with induction therapy on the oncology unit. What nursing action should be prioritized in the patient's care plan?
- A. Protective isolation and vigilant use of standard precautions
- B. Provision of a high-calorie, low-texture diet and appropriate oral hygiene
- C. Including the family in planning the patient's activities of daily living
- D. Monitoring and treating the patient's pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Protective isolation and vigilant use of standard precautions. This is the priority because patients with AML are at high risk for infections due to compromised immune systems. Isolation and strict infection control measures help prevent exposure to pathogens. B is incorrect as the main priority is infection prevention, not diet. C is incorrect as involving the family is important but not the priority. D is incorrect as pain monitoring is important but not the priority in this case.
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A 12-year-old patient with localized osteosarcoma is being treated with cisplatin, doxorubicin, and high-dose methotrexate. The pain at his primary site rapidly resolves after initiation of chemotherapy. After tumor resection, pathology reveals the tumor was greater than 95% necrotic. You want to continue cisplatin, doxorubicin, and high-dose methotrexate. Which of the following is the best answer regarding the evaluations that should be performed to monitor for toxicity in patients receiving cisplatin, doxorubicin, and high-dose methotrexate?
- A. Complete blood count, creatinine, liver function tests
- B. Complete blood count, serum electrolytes (sodium, potassium, BUN, chloride), and EKG to monitor for prolonged QTc
- C. Complete blood count, creatinine, serum magnesium, audiogram, and echocardiogram
- D. Complete blood count, creatinine, serum magnesium, chest x-ray
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it includes essential evaluations to monitor for toxicity associated with cisplatin, doxorubicin, and high-dose methotrexate.
1. Complete blood count: To monitor for potential bone marrow suppression caused by chemotherapy drugs.
2. Creatinine: To assess renal function, as cisplatin can cause nephrotoxicity.
3. Serum magnesium: Monitoring for hypomagnesemia, a common side effect of cisplatin.
4. Audiogram: To screen for hearing loss, a known side effect of cisplatin.
5. Echocardiogram: To evaluate for cardiotoxicity, especially with doxorubicin known to cause cardiomyopathy.
Other choices are incorrect:
A: Does not include serum magnesium, audiogram, and echocardiogram, which are important for monitoring toxicity.
B: While electrolytes and EKG are relevant, it lacks creatinine, serum magnesium, and other crucial tests.
D:
A home health nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize when addressing the patient's severe bone pain?
- A. Implementing distraction techniques
- B. Educating the patient about the effective use of hot and cold packs
- C. Teaching the patient to use NSAIDs effectively
- D. Helping the patient manage the opioid analgesic regimen
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because severe bone pain in multiple myeloma often requires strong analgesics like opioids for effective pain management. Distraction techniques (A) may provide temporary relief but may not address the underlying pain. Hot and cold packs (B) are more suited for musculoskeletal injuries, not severe bone pain. NSAIDs (C) are usually not sufficient for managing severe bone pain in multiple myeloma. Therefore, helping the patient manage the opioid analgesic regimen (D) is the priority for effective pain control.
A 72-year-old male with enlargement of superficial lymph nodes and mild hepatosplenomegaly is diagnosed as having chronic lymphatic leukemia (CLL). The most important criteria for diagnosis of this disease is the
- A. Presence of hypogammaglobulinemia
- B. Absolute lymphocytes
- C. Male predominance
- D. Presence of enlarged lymph nodes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Absolute lymphocytes. In CLL, the most important diagnostic criteria is an absolute lymphocyte count greater than 5,000/microliter. This is crucial for distinguishing CLL from other lymphoproliferative disorders. The presence of hypogammaglobulinemia (choice A) is not specific to CLL and can be seen in other conditions. Male predominance (choice C) is an epidemiological feature and not a diagnostic criterion. Enlarged lymph nodes (choice D) are a common clinical finding but do not solely confirm the diagnosis of CLL.
In microcytic hypochromic anaemia
- A. Red cells are larger with normal staining
- B. Red blood cell count is increased
- C. Haemtocrit and mean corpuscular haemoglobin are normal
- D. Red cells are smaller with a pale large central pallor
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In microcytic hypochromic anemia, the correct answer is D because red cells are smaller (microcytic) and have a pale large central pallor (hypochromic). This is due to decreased hemoglobin content and iron deficiency. Choice A is incorrect as red cells are smaller, not larger. Choice B is incorrect as the red blood cell count is typically decreased in this type of anemia. Choice C is incorrect as both hematocrit and mean corpuscular hemoglobin are decreased in microcytic hypochromic anemia, not normal. Therefore, the correct answer is D based on the characteristic features of microcytic hypochromic anemia.
You receive a phone call from a community pediatrician who is caring for a 2-year-old toddler with a cancer predisposition syndrome. The pediatrician describes a child at the 95th percentile for height and weight with a history of corrective oral surgery to reduce a large tongue and a history of an omphalocele in infancy. The pediatrician is currently performing ultrasound of the abdomen and laboratory evaluation for this patient every 3 months. Which tumor is this patient most at risk of developing?
- A. Pleuropulmonary blastoma
- B. Hepatocellular carcinoma
- C. Cystic nephroma
- D. Nephroblastoma
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nephroblastoma. This patient likely has Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome based on the large tongue (macroglossia) and omphalocele. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome is associated with an increased risk of developing nephroblastoma (Wilms tumor). The 95th percentile for height and weight is also a common feature of this syndrome. Pleuropulmonary blastoma (choice A) is more commonly seen in patients with DICER1 mutations. Hepatocellular carcinoma (choice B) is not typically associated with Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome. Cystic nephroma (choice C) is more commonly seen in patients with DICER1 mutations, not Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome.