Nokea
Oral iron supplements are given for iron deficiency anemia. Which of the statement is true regarding the absorption of oral iron supplements?
- A. Absorption occurs in the large intestine
- B. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the iron absorption
- C. Ascorbic acids reduces iron absorption
- D. Absorption is increased in hereditary hemochromatosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale:
A: Correct - Iron absorption primarily occurs in the duodenum and upper small intestine, not the large intestine.
B: Incorrect - Intrinsic factor is necessary for Vitamin B12 absorption, not iron.
C: Incorrect - Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) actually enhances iron absorption.
D: Incorrect - Absorption is decreased in hereditary hemochromatosis, a condition of iron overload.
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A hospitalized client has a platelet count of 58,000/mm3 (58 × 109/L). What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. Encourage high-protein foods.
- B. Institute neutropenic precautions.
- C. Limit visitors to healthy adults.
- D. Place the client on safety precautions.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Place the client on safety precautions. With a platelet count of 58,000/mm3, the client is at risk for bleeding due to thrombocytopenia. Placing the client on safety precautions will help prevent injuries and minimize bleeding risks. This includes using a soft-bristled toothbrush, avoiding IM injections, and using caution with activities that may cause trauma.
A: Encouraging high-protein foods is not directly related to managing the client's thrombocytopenia.
B: Neutropenic precautions are for clients with low white blood cell counts, not low platelet counts.
C: Limiting visitors to healthy adults is important for clients with compromised immune systems, not specifically for thrombocytopenia.
A 3-year-old boy is referred to you for evaluation of right leukocoria. Funduscopic examination under anesthesia reveals a large amelanotic mass occupying more than two-thirds of the vitreous space in his right eye, with massive retinal detachment, consistent with group E retinoblastoma. The left eye is normal. An MRI confirms the funduscopic findings and shows no extraocular disease. What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this child's disease?
- A. Enucleation
- B. Systemic chemotherapy
- C. Brachytherapy
- D. Needle biopsy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Enucleation. In this case, the child has a group E retinoblastoma in the right eye, with massive retinal detachment. Enucleation, or surgical removal of the eye, is the most appropriate next step as the tumor is extensive and poses a risk of metastasis. Enucleation helps prevent spread of the cancer to other parts of the body and provides the best chance for cure. Systemic chemotherapy (B) and brachytherapy (C) are not ideal for such advanced cases due to the high risk of metastasis. Needle biopsy (D) is not recommended as the diagnosis is already confirmed by funduscopic examination and MRI.
A 4-year-old child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia is receiving high-dose methotrexate during interim maintenance. He receives ondansetron and арретitant during his stay, which control his nausea and vomiting well. These medications work by inhibiting signaling in which part of the brain?
- A. Vestibular system
- B. Cerebral cortex
- C. Hypothalamus
- D. Vomiting center
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: I apologize, but it seems like the correct answer (E) is missing from the choices provided in the question. If you could kindly provide the correct answer, I would be more than happy to provide a detailed explanation for why that answer is correct and summarize why the other choices are incorrect.
Heparin is an anticoagulant produced by the basophils. The most likely mechanism heparin prevents blood clotting is by
- A. Inhibiting the formation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors
- B. Preventing the activation of platelets
- C. Preventing the aggregation of platelets
- D. Binding to antithrombin III to inactivate thrombin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because heparin binds to antithrombin III, enhancing its ability to inactivate thrombin. This prevents the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin, thereby inhibiting blood clot formation. Choice A is incorrect because vitamin K-dependent clotting factors are not directly affected by heparin. Choice B is incorrect because heparin does not prevent the activation of platelets, rather it affects the coagulation cascade. Choice C is incorrect as heparin does not directly prevent platelet aggregation, which is more related to antiplatelet agents like aspirin.
A patient reports severe abdominal cramping and diarrhea. Assessment reveals a temperature of 102°F (38.8°C) and pulse of 82 beats/min. Results of a complete blood count reveal lower than normal segmented and banded neutrophils and higher than normal lymphocytes. Which type of infection does the nurse suspect this patient is most likely experiencing?
- A. Viral
- B. Fungal
- C. Parasitic
- D. Bacterial
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Viral. The patient's symptoms (abdominal cramping, diarrhea, fever) are consistent with a viral infection, such as gastroenteritis. The lower segmented and banded neutrophils indicate a viral infection, as viruses often target lymphocytes. The higher lymphocyte count is a characteristic response to viral infections. Other choices are incorrect as fungal, parasitic, and bacterial infections typically present with different symptoms and laboratory findings.