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While assessing a patient in the ICU, a nurse observes signs of a weak pulse, quick respiration, acetone breath, and nausea. Which of the following conditions is most likely occurring?
- A. Hypoglycemic patient
- B. Hyperglycemic patient
- C. Cardiac arrest
- D. End-stage renal failure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is a hyperglycemic patient. The signs described - weak pulse, quick respiration, acetone breath, and nausea - are indicative of hyperglycemia. A hypoglycemic patient would typically present with different signs such as pale skin, sweating, and confusion. Cardiac arrest would manifest with sudden loss of heart function and consciousness, not the signs described. End-stage renal failure would present with symptoms related to kidney dysfunction like edema, fatigue, and changes in urine output, which are not mentioned in the scenario.
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A client has chronic respiratory acidosis caused by end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Oxygen is delivered at 1 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse teaches the family that the reason for this is to avoid respiratory depression, based on which of the following explanations?
- A. COPD clients are stimulated to breathe by hypoxia.
- B. COPD clients depend on a low carbon dioxide level.
- C. COPD clients tend to retain hydrogen ions if they are given high doses of oxygen.
- D. COPD clients thrive on a high oxygen level.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In clients with COPD and chronic respiratory acidosis, they are compensating for low oxygen and high carbon dioxide levels. Hypoxia acts as the main stimulus to breathe in individuals with chronic hypercapnia. When oxygen is administered, it can decrease the respiratory drive by eliminating the hypoxic drive and reducing the stimulus to breathe. Therefore, delivering oxygen at 1 L/min via nasal cannula helps prevent respiratory depression by maintaining the hypoxic drive to breathe. The other options are incorrect: COPD clients do not depend on a low carbon dioxide level as they are chronically hypercapnic, they do not retain hydrogen ions with high oxygen doses, and they do not thrive on a high oxygen level.
Which of the following is likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted disease?
- A. alcohol use
- B. certain types of sexual practices
- C. oral contraception use
- D. all of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: All of the above factors are likely to increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs). Alcohol use can impair judgment, leading to risky sexual behavior. Certain types of sexual practices, especially unprotected sex or multiple partners, increase the likelihood of contracting STDs. While oral contraception use does not directly increase the risk of STDs, it does not protect against them either. Therefore, all the choices (alcohol use, certain types of sexual practices, and oral contraception use) can contribute to an increased risk of contracting STDs.
A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?
- A. increased platelet count
- B. increased fibrinogen
- C. decreased fibrin split products
- D. decreased bleeding
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of DIC, effective Heparin therapy aims to halt the process of intravascular coagulation. One of the indicators of a positive response to Heparin therapy is an increase in fibrinogen levels. Heparin interferes with the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin by thrombin. This interruption helps increase the availability of fibrinogen. While the platelet count may increase due to improved clotting, the primary focus of Heparin therapy is on fibrinogen. Fibrin split products are expected to decrease as the coagulation cascade is controlled. Although decreased bleeding is an ultimate goal, the immediate effect of Heparin is not directly on bleeding but on the coagulation process.
Which of the following viruses is most likely to be acquired through casual contact with an infected individual?
- A. influenza virus
- B. herpes virus
- C. cytomegalovirus (CMV)
- D. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is influenza virus. Influenza virus is most likely to be acquired through casual contact with an infected individual as it is transmitted through respiratory droplets. Herpes virus is primarily transmitted by direct contact, such as skin-to-skin contact, making it less likely to be acquired through casual contact. HIV is mainly transmitted through blood and body fluids like semen and vaginal fluids, not through casual contact. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is an opportunistic infection commonly affecting immunocompromised individuals and is usually transmitted through close personal contact, not casual contact.
What is the drug of choice for herpes simplex virus 1, herpes simplex virus 2, and varicella-zoster virus?
- A. HIV.
- B. HSV 1, HSV 2, and VZV.
- C. CMV
- D. Influenza A viruses.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acyclovir (Zovirax) is the drug of choice for herpes simplex virus 1 (HSV-1), herpes simplex virus 2 (HSV-2), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infections. It works by inhibiting viral DNA replication. Acyclovir is excreted unchanged in the urine, so caution is needed in renal impairment. Choice A, HIV, is incorrect as acyclovir is not the drug of choice for HIV. Choice C, CMV, is incorrect as acyclovir is not the preferred treatment for cytomegalovirus (CMV) infections. Choice D, Influenza A viruses, is incorrect as acyclovir is not used to treat influenza viruses.