Nokea
A nurse is providing teaching for a client who is withdrawing from alcohol and has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following information should the nurse to include in the teaching?
- A. Increases the risk for seizure activity
- B. Provides a form of aversion therapy
- C. Decreases cravings
- D. Results in mild hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Propranolol reduces withdrawal symptoms like tremors and cravings , not seizures or aversion.
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Which of the following statement is correct for Amantadine?
- A. Has agonistic action on NDMA type of glutamate receptors
- B. It was developed as antiepileptic drug
- C. Acts as a D2 blocker
- D. Produces livedo reticularis as side effect
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Amantadine, an antiviral and antiparkinsonian drug, can cause livedo reticularis (a skin mottling side effect); it blocks NMDA receptors, not agonizes them, and enhances dopamine release, not blocks D2.
It is customary to administer systemic corticosteroids early in the morning because:
- A. This prevents early morning bronchospasms
- B. To inhibit adrenocorticotrophic hormone over secretion
- C. To achieve high plasma concentrations throughout the day
- D. To prevent adrenocortex suppression
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Morning dosing aligns with cortisol peaks, minimizing adrenal suppression.
Which of the following is not a dose related reaction:
- A. Myocardial Irritation of Quinidine
- B. Hypoglycemia of tolbutamide
- C. Digitalis induced arrythmia
- D. Drug fever of sulpha
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Drug fever from sulfa is an idiosyncratic/hypersensitivity reaction, not dose-related.
A patient presents to the emergency department with a drug level of 50 units/mL. The half-life of this drug is 1 hour. With this drug, concentrations above 25 units/mL are considered toxic and no more drug is given. How long will it take for the blood level to reach the non-toxic range?
- A. 30 minutes
- B. 1 hour
- C. 2 hours
- D. 3 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Half-life is the time required for the serum concentration of a drug to decrease by 50%. After 1 hour, the serum concentration would be 25 units/mL (50/2) if the body can properly metabolize and excrete the drug. After 2 hours, the serum concentration would be 12.5 units/mL (25/2) and reach the nontoxic range. In 30 minutes the drug level would be 37.5 units/mL, whereas in 3 hours the drug level would be 6.25.
A nurse is caring for a client who states she has been taking Phenylephrine nasal drops for the past 10 days for Sinusitis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Sedation
- B. Nasal congestion
- C. Productive cough
- D. Constipation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Prolonged phenylephrine use can cause rebound nasal congestion due to vasoconstrictor overuse.