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A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings for a client who developed fat embolism syndrome (FES) following a fracture. Which of the following laboratory findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased serum calcium level
- B. Increased potassium level
- C. Decreased white blood cell count
- D. Increased serum albumin level
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased serum calcium level. In fat embolism syndrome (FES), fat droplets enter the bloodstream and can affect various organs. One of the common complications is hypocalcemia due to the binding of calcium to the fatty acids, leading to decreased serum calcium levels. This can result in symptoms such as confusion, tetany, and seizures. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Increased potassium level is not typically associated with FES. C: Decreased white blood cell count is not a common finding in FES. D: Increased serum albumin level is not related to FES.
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A nurse is caring for a client who has HIV. Which of the following laboratory values is the nurse's priority?
- A. CD4-T-cell count 180 cells/mm3
- B. White blood cell count 10,000/mm3
- C. Hemoglobin 12.5 g/dL
- D. Platelet count 200,000/mm3
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: CD4-T-cell count 180 cells/mm3. In HIV, monitoring CD4-T-cell count is crucial as it reflects the immune system's ability to fight infections. A low CD4 count indicates immunosuppression, increasing the risk of opportunistic infections. Therefore, it is the nurse's priority to monitor and ensure the CD4 count remains above critical levels to prevent complications.
Other choices are incorrect because:
B: White blood cell count is important but not as specific to HIV management.
C: Hemoglobin level is important for assessing anemia but not a priority in HIV care.
D: Platelet count is important for clotting but not directly related to HIV progression.
A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension and a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Atenolol is a beta-blocker that slows down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia as an adverse effect. This occurs because atenolol blocks the action of adrenaline on the heart, causing the heart to beat slower. Hyperglycemia (A) is not a common adverse effect of atenolol; in fact, it may even lower blood sugar levels slightly. Tachycardia (B) and hypertension (C) are the opposite effects of atenolol, as it is used to treat high blood pressure and reduce heart rate. Therefore, these would not be expected adverse effects.
A nurse is teaching a client about snacks that are appropriate on a low-fat, low-sodium, and low-cholesterol diet. Which of the following food choices by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. A slice of cheese
- B. A small handful of almonds
- C. A baked apple
- D. Carrot sticks with hummus
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A slice of cheese. Cheese is high in fat, sodium, and cholesterol, making it unsuitable for a low-fat, low-sodium, and low-cholesterol diet. The client needs further teaching to understand that cheese does not align with their dietary restrictions. The other options (B, C, D) are suitable choices for a low-fat, low-sodium, and low-cholesterol diet. Almonds are a source of healthy fats, a baked apple is low in fat and sodium, and carrot sticks with hummus are low in fat and cholesterol while providing fiber and nutrients. These options align with the client's dietary needs and do not require further teaching.
A nurse is caring for a client who develops a ventricular fibrillation rhythm. The client is unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
- A. Defibrillation
- B. Administer oxygen
- C. Call for help
- D. Start chest compressions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Defibrillation. Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia that requires immediate defibrillation to restore the heart's normal rhythm. Defibrillation is the priority as it is the most effective intervention to treat ventricular fibrillation and increase the chance of survival. Administering oxygen (B) is important but not the priority over defibrillation. Calling for help (C) should be done after initiating defibrillation. Starting chest compressions (D) should only be done if defibrillation is not immediately available or unsuccessful.
A nurse evaluates a client's PSA lab results. An increase in PSA indicates what condition?
- A. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
- B. Prostatic cancer
- C. Urinary tract infection
- D. Kidney stones
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prostatic cancer. PSA levels are commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer. Elevated PSA levels indicate an increased likelihood of prostate cancer. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (choice A) is a non-cancerous condition that can also cause elevated PSA levels but is not indicative of cancer. Urinary tract infection (choice C) and kidney stones (choice D) do not directly affect PSA levels. The other choices (E, F, G) are not provided, but the key is to understand that an increase in PSA specifically points towards the possibility of prostatic cancer.