Nokea
Which of the following statements is true about the medical management of diabetic ketoacidosis?
- A. Serum lactate levels are used to guide insulin administration.
- B. Sodium bicarbonate is a first-line medication for treatment.
- C. The degree of acidosis is assessed through continuous pulse oximetry.
- D. Volume replacement and insulin infusion often correct the acidosis.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Volume replacement and insulin infusion often correct the acidosis in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) because volume depletion and insulin deficiency are key factors in its pathophysiology. Volume replacement helps correct dehydration and improve tissue perfusion, while insulin infusion helps lower blood glucose levels and inhibit ketone production, ultimately correcting the acidosis.
A is incorrect because serum lactate levels are not typically used to guide insulin administration in DKA. B is incorrect as sodium bicarbonate is not a first-line medication for DKA treatment as it can worsen metabolic acidosis. C is incorrect as the degree of acidosis in DKA is typically assessed through blood gas analysis, not continuous pulse oximetry.
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A patient with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes is being transitioned from an infusion of intravenous (IV) regular insulin to an intensive insulin therapy regimen of insulin glargine and insulin aspart. How should the nurse manage this transition in insulin delivery?
- A. Administer the insulin glargine and continue the IV insulin infusion for 24 hours.
- B. Administer the insulin glargine and discontinue the IV infusion in several hours.
- C. Discontinue the IV infusion and administer the insulin aspart with the next meal.
- D. Discontinue the IV infusion and administer the Lantus insulin at bedtime.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Discontinue the IV infusion and administer the Lantus insulin at bedtime. This is the correct approach because insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting basal insulin that provides a steady level of insulin throughout the day and night. By administering it at bedtime, it mimics the basal insulin secretion in a person without diabetes. This helps maintain stable blood sugar levels overnight.
Choice A is incorrect because continuing the IV insulin infusion for 24 hours alongside insulin glargine is unnecessary and may lead to insulin overdose. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing the IV infusion in several hours without administering the long-acting insulin can lead to inadequate insulin coverage. Choice C is incorrect because insulin aspart is a rapid-acting insulin that should be given with meals, not as a basal insulin replacement at bedtime.
The patient is complaining of severe flank pain when he tries to urinate. His urinalysis shows sediment and crystals along with a few bacteria. Using this information along with the clinical picture, the nurse realizes that the patient’s condition is
- A. prerenal.
- B. postrenal.
- C. intrarenal.
- D. not renal related.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: intrarenal. The presence of sediment, crystals, and bacteria in the urinalysis indicates an issue within the kidneys themselves. The flank pain suggests renal involvement. Prerenal would involve issues before the kidneys, such as inadequate blood flow. Postrenal would involve issues after the kidneys, such as urinary tract obstruction. Not renal related is incorrect as the symptoms and urinalysis findings clearly point to a renal issue.
Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) differs from conventional intermittent hemodialysis in that
- A. a hemofilter is used to facilitate ultrafiltration.
- B. it provides faster removal of solute and water.
- C. it does not allow diffusion to occur.
- D. the process removes solutes and water slowly.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale:
1. CRRT removes solutes and water slowly to avoid hemodynamic instability.
2. Slow removal better tolerates fluid and electrolyte shifts in critically ill patients.
3. Unlike intermittent hemodialysis, CRRT provides continuous, gentle therapy.
4. Choice A is incorrect as both CRRT and intermittent hemodialysis use a hemofilter.
5. Choice B is incorrect as CRRT does not provide faster solute and water removal.
6. Choice C is incorrect as CRRT allows for diffusion to occur, albeit at a slower rate.
Summary:
Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) removes solutes and water slowly to prevent hemodynamic instability, making it a gentler and more continuous process compared to intermittent hemodialysis. The other choices are incorrect as CRRT does use a hemofilter, does not provide faster removal, and still allows for diffusion to occur.
A patient with pancreatic cancer has been admitted to the critical care unit with clinical signs consistent with syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone. The nurse anticipates that clinical management of this condition will include
- A. administration of 3% normal saline.
- B. administration of exogenous vasopressin.
- C. fluid restriction.
- D. low sodium diet.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) leads to excess water retention, diluting sodium levels in the blood.
Step 2: Fluid restriction is the mainstay of treatment to prevent further dilution of sodium.
Step 3: Administering 3% normal saline (choice A) can worsen the condition by further increasing sodium levels.
Step 4: Exogenous vasopressin (choice B) would exacerbate the problem by increasing water retention.
Step 5: Low sodium diet (choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority.
The nurse has been assigned the following patients. Which patients require assessment of blood glucose control as a nursing priority? (Select all that apply.)
- A. 18-year-old male who has undergone surgical correction of a fractured femur
- B. 29-year-old female who is undergoing evaluation for pheochromocytoma
- C. 43-year-old male with acute pancreatitis who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN)
- D. 62-year-old morbidly obese female who underwent a hysterectomy for ovarian cancer
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient with acute pancreatitis receiving TPN is at risk for hyperglycemia due to the high glucose content in TPN. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent complications.
Explanation for why other choices are incorrect:
A: The 18-year-old male post-surgery for a fractured femur does not have a direct correlation to blood glucose control assessment.
B: The 29-year-old female undergoing evaluation for pheochromocytoma is not directly related to blood glucose control assessment.
D: The 62-year-old morbidly obese female post-hysterectomy for ovarian cancer does not specifically require immediate blood glucose control assessment.