Nokea
A nurse provides teaching for a patient scheduled for genetic testing. What should the nurse do to help the patient understand what is being taught?
- A. Use simple vocabulary.
- B. Avoid the use of jargon.
- C. Speak slowly and clearly.
- D. Ask the patient to verbalize what was learned.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because asking the patient to verbalize what was learned promotes active learning and helps assess the patient's understanding. It allows the nurse to clarify any misconceptions and reinforce important information. Choice A may be helpful but not sufficient. Choice B is important but may not fully address comprehension. Choice C focuses on communication style rather than assessing understanding.
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A genetic counselor's report states, 'The genetic nomenclature for this fetus is 46, XX.' How should the nurse who reads this report interpret the cytogenetic results?
- A. The baby is female with a normal number of chromosomes.
- B. The baby is hermaphroditic male with female chromosomes.
- C. The baby is male with an undisclosed genetic anomaly.
- D. There is insufficient information to answer this question.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 46, XX indicates a genetically normal female.
A newly married woman states, "My friend told me I would never have a baby because I had pelvic inflammatory disease when I was younger. I don't understand how that can affect whether or not I get pregnant." The nurse's most appropriate response is
- A. "Your friend may be right. The disease may affect your ability to conceive."
- B. "Pelvic inflammatory disease may damage the ovaries and prevent ovulation."
- C. "Your friend has been misinformed. Fallopian tube damage occurs only following gonorrhea."
- D. "Infection may cause scarring and obstruction of the fallopian tubes, which can prevent the fertilized egg from reaching the uterus."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) can lead to scarring and obstruction of the fallopian tubes. This can prevent the fertilized egg from traveling to the uterus for implantation, thus affecting fertility. Choice A is incorrect as it makes a definitive statement without considering individual variations in the impact of PID. Choice B is incorrect because while PID can lead to ovarian damage, it primarily affects the fallopian tubes. Choice C is incorrect as fallopian tube damage can result from various infections, not just gonorrhea. Thus, the most appropriate response is D, as it directly addresses how PID can impact fertility through fallopian tube obstruction.
During preconception counseling, the nurse discusses the impact of advanced maternal age. What should the nurse emphasize?
- A. Advanced maternal age has no impact on pregnancy outcomes.
- B. Fertility declines with age, increasing the risk of complications.
- C. Only the father's age affects pregnancy success.
- D. Advanced maternal age reduces the need for prenatal care.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because fertility declines with age, leading to increased risk of complications such as chromosomal abnormalities and miscarriages. This is important to emphasize during preconception counseling. Choice A is incorrect as advanced maternal age does impact pregnancy outcomes. Choice C is incorrect because both maternal and paternal age can affect pregnancy success. Choice D is incorrect as advanced maternal age actually increases the need for additional prenatal care due to higher risk factors.
Lori, who is 32 years old, is taking clomiphene citrate to induce ovulation and presents to the office for a vaginal ultrasound. She mentions experiencing abdominal bloating, nausea, and weight gain of 5 pounds over the past 12 hours. What condition do these symptoms indicate?
- A. Ovulation
- B. Premenstrual syndrome
- C. Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome
- D. Failed ovulation induction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). OHSS is a potential complication of ovulation induction with medications like clomiphene citrate. The symptoms of abdominal bloating, nausea, and rapid weight gain indicate fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity, a hallmark of OHSS. This occurs due to enlarged ovaries releasing excessive fluid into the abdomen. It is important to monitor patients like Lori closely for signs of OHSS to prevent severe complications.
Incorrect choices:
A: Ovulation - Symptoms described are not typical of normal ovulation.
B: Premenstrual syndrome - Symptoms are not consistent with typical PMS symptoms.
D: Failed ovulation induction - Symptoms of weight gain and bloating are not indicative of failed ovulation induction but rather a complication of the treatment.
A nurse is discussing fertility preservation options for a young woman undergoing cancer treatment. What should the nurse highlight?
- A. Embryo freezing is the only effective preservation method.
- B. Egg freezing is an option for women who are not ready to fertilize eggs.
- C. Fertility preservation must wait until cancer treatment is completed.
- D. No preservation methods exist for women in this situation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because egg freezing allows women to preserve their fertility before cancer treatment. It is a viable option for those not ready to fertilize eggs. Choice A is incorrect as embryo freezing is not the only method. Choice C is incorrect as fertility preservation should be discussed before cancer treatment. Choice D is incorrect as egg freezing is a valid preservation method.