A nurse receives a unit of packed RBCs from a blood bank and notes that the time is 1130. The nurse should begin the infusion at which of the following times?
- A. As soon as the nurse can prepare the client and the administration set
- B. At 1200
- C. At 1300
- D. At 1400
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: As soon as the nurse can prepare the client and the administration set. It is important to start the infusion promptly to maximize the effectiveness of the blood transfusion. Delaying the infusion can lead to potential complications. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because they suggest delayed start times, which can be detrimental to the patient's health. Starting the infusion as soon as possible ensures that the patient receives the necessary blood components in a timely manner.
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A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has had a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for uterine cancer. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Artificial lubrication can be used to treat vaginal itching and dryness.
- B. Avoid sexual activity for the first 6 months.
- C. Use a menstrual pad for vaginal bleeding.
- D. Use a diaphragm for contraception.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Artificial lubrication can be used to treat vaginal itching and dryness. The rationale for this is that after a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, there is a decrease in estrogen levels, leading to vaginal dryness and itching. Using artificial lubrication can help alleviate these symptoms and improve comfort.
Choice B is incorrect as there is no need to avoid sexual activity for 6 months unless specifically advised by the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect as there should not be vaginal bleeding after a total abdominal hysterectomy. Choice D is incorrect as using a diaphragm for contraception is not recommended after a hysterectomy.
A nurse is admitting a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following provider prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Pantoprazole 80 mg IV bolus twice daily
- B. Furosemide 40 mg IV
- C. Lactulose 20 mg PO
- D. Acetaminophen 650 mg PO
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pantoprazole 80 mg IV bolus twice daily. In acute pancreatitis, gastric acid hypersecretion can occur, leading to exacerbation of pancreatic inflammation. Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that helps reduce gastric acid secretion, which can alleviate pancreatic irritation. IV administration ensures rapid onset of action.
B: Furosemide is a diuretic used for conditions like heart failure or edema, not indicated for acute pancreatitis.
C: Lactulose is a laxative used for hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia levels, not indicated for acute pancreatitis.
D: Acetaminophen is a pain reliever, but it does not address the underlying cause of acute pancreatitis.
A nurse is assessing a client with menopausal symptoms considering hormone therapy. What is a contraindication?
- A. History of osteoporosis
- B. History of breast cancer
- C. History of anemia
- D. History of chronic migraines
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of breast cancer. Hormone therapy can potentially stimulate the growth of breast cancer cells. It is contraindicated in clients with a history of breast cancer due to the increased risk of cancer recurrence or progression. Other choices are incorrect because: A: History of osteoporosis is not a contraindication for hormone therapy, as it can actually help improve bone density. C: History of anemia is not a contraindication for hormone therapy. D: History of chronic migraines is not a contraindication, but it may need monitoring as hormone therapy can sometimes trigger migraines.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has hypertension and a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Take the medication early in the day.
- B. Take the medication at bedtime.
- C. Take the medication with food.
- D. Take the medication only when blood pressure is high.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Take the medication early in the day. Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that increases urine production, which can cause frequent urination. Taking it early helps prevent nighttime urination, promoting better sleep. Taking it with food may reduce gastrointestinal upset. Taking it only when blood pressure is high is incorrect, as it should be taken regularly to maintain consistent blood pressure control. Bedtime dosing may lead to nocturnal diuresis and disturb sleep. The other choices are irrelevant or incorrect in the context of hydrochlorothiazide administration.
A female middle adult client tells a nurse that she tested positive for a mutant BRCA1 gene. The nurse should recognize that the client is at an increased risk for which of the following situations?
- A. Developing breast cancer
- B. Developing ovarian cancer
- C. Developing uterine cancer
- D. Developing cervical cancer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Developing breast cancer. The BRCA1 gene mutation is associated with an increased risk of breast cancer in women. The mutation affects the body's ability to repair damaged DNA, leading to a higher likelihood of developing breast cancer. This risk is significantly higher in women with the mutant BRCA1 gene compared to those without it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the BRCA1 gene mutation is not specifically linked to an increased risk of ovarian, uterine, or cervical cancer. Therefore, the client should be counseled and monitored closely for early detection and prevention of breast cancer.
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