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A patient asks about the benefits of time-lapse embryo monitoring in IVF. What should the nurse highlight?
- A. It guarantees successful implantation of embryos.
- B. It allows continuous observation of embryo development without disturbing the culture environment.
- C. It eliminates the need for hormone support during IVF.
- D. It shortens the time required for fertilization.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because time-lapse embryo monitoring in IVF allows continuous observation of embryo development without disturbing the culture environment. This is crucial as it provides real-time data on embryo growth and helps in selecting the healthiest embryos for transfer. Choice A is incorrect as implantation success is not guaranteed by monitoring alone. Choice C is incorrect as hormone support is still needed in IVF. Choice D is incorrect as time-lapse monitoring does not affect the fertilization process itself.
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A patient undergoing IVF asks about the role of gonadotropins. What should the nurse explain?
- A. Gonadotropins suppress ovulation to control the cycle.
- B. They stimulate the ovaries to produce multiple eggs for retrieval.
- C. They are only used during natural conception cycles.
- D. Gonadotropins replace progesterone in early pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because gonadotropins stimulate the ovaries to produce multiple eggs for retrieval during IVF. This is crucial to increase the chances of successful fertilization. Choice A is incorrect as gonadotropins actually stimulate ovulation. Choice C is incorrect as gonadotropins are specifically used in assisted reproductive technologies like IVF. Choice D is incorrect as gonadotropins do not replace progesterone but rather help in follicular development.
The procedure in which ova are removed by laparoscopy, mixed with sperm, and the embryo(s) returned to the woman's uterus is
- A. in vitro fertilization (IVF).
- B. tubal embryo transfer (TET).
- C. therapeutic insemination (IUI).
- D. gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT).
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: in vitro fertilization (IVF). In IVF, ova are retrieved via laparoscopy, fertilized with sperm in a lab dish, and then the resulting embryo(s) are transferred back to the woman's uterus. This process allows for fertilization to occur outside the body.
Incorrect choices:
B: Tubal embryo transfer (TET) involves transferring embryos directly into the fallopian tubes, not the uterus.
C: Therapeutic insemination (IUI) is the process of injecting sperm directly into the uterus, not involving the removal and fertilization of ova.
D: Gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) involves transferring both eggs and sperm into the fallopian tubes for fertilization to occur internally, not in a lab dish.
A nurse is providing care to a woman in labor. After assessment of the fetus, the nurse documents the fetal lie. Which term would the nurse use?
- A. flexion
- B. extension
- C. longitudinal
- D. cephalic
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because fetal lie refers to the relationship of the long axis of the fetus to the long axis of the mother. The primary lies are longitudinal, oblique, and transverse. Flexion and extension are terms used to describe fetal attitude, while cephalic is used to describe fetal presentation.
What is the purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments?
- A. To trigger ovulation directly.
- B. To prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation.
- C. To stimulate the growth of the uterine lining.
- D. To improve egg quality in natural cycles.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of using a GnRH antagonist in fertility treatments is to prevent premature ovulation during controlled ovarian stimulation. GnRH antagonists work by blocking the release of luteinizing hormone (LH), which can trigger premature ovulation. This allows for better control of the timing of ovulation in assisted reproductive techniques.
Choice A is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not trigger ovulation directly; they prevent it. Choice C is incorrect because stimulating the growth of the uterine lining is typically achieved through other medications like estrogen. Choice D is incorrect because GnRH antagonists do not directly improve egg quality; they primarily target ovulation timing.
A woman has been advised that the reason she has had a number of spontaneous abortions is because she has an inheritable mutation. Which of the following situations is consistent with this statement?
- A. A client developed skin cancer after being exposed to the sun.
- B. A client developed colon cancer from an inherited dominant gene.
- C. A reciprocal translocation was reported on a client's genetic analysis.
- D. A client's left arm failed to develop when she was a fetus.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Reciprocal translocations can disrupt genes and lead to recurrent miscarriages.