A patient at 32 weeks' gestation is diagnosed with polyhydramnios. The patient asks the nurse if polyhydramnios can affect the baby. What is the nurse's response to the patient's question?
- A. No, polyhydramnios commonly occurs toward the end of pregnancy.
- B. No, polyhydramnios is a sign that the lungs are maturing.
- C. Yes, polyhydramnios increases the risk of a preterm delivery.
- D. Yes, polyhydramnios causes umbilical cord compression.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Yes, polyhydramnios increases the risk of a preterm delivery. Polyhydramnios, an excess of amniotic fluid, can lead to uterine overdistension, which may trigger premature labor. The increased pressure from the excess fluid can also cause premature rupture of membranes. This complication can potentially result in a preterm delivery, which carries risks for the baby's health and development. Choices A and B are incorrect because polyhydramnios is not a normal occurrence at the end of pregnancy nor a sign of lung maturity. Choice D is incorrect as umbilical cord compression is a potential complication of polyhydramnios but not the primary risk associated with it.
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Which cardiac disease has the lowest risk for maternal mortality?
- A. Endocarditis
- B. Aortic stenosis
- C. Patent ductus arteriosus
- D. Pulmonary hypertension
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Patent ductus arteriosus. This condition typically does not pose a significant risk for maternal mortality because it is a relatively benign cardiac defect that does not significantly impact maternal health during pregnancy. Other choices, such as endocarditis, aortic stenosis, and pulmonary hypertension, have higher risks for maternal mortality due to complications like heart failure, arrhythmias, and increased risk of thromboembolic events. Therefore, patent ductus arteriosus is the lowest risk for maternal mortality among the given options.
Several hours after delivery, a new mother expresses ambivalence regarding her infant. How will the nurse promote bonding?
- A. Having the mother feed the infant
- B. Removing the infant from the mother's arms if it cries
- C. Positioning the infant so its head rests on the mother's shoulder
- D. Encouraging the mother to sleep for 4 to 6 hours before interacting with the infant
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, having the mother feed the infant. This helps promote bonding through physical closeness, eye contact, and the release of oxytocin. Feeding also fosters a sense of responsibility and nurturing. Choice B may disrupt bonding by creating separation anxiety. Choice C is a comforting position but not as interactive as feeding. Choice D delays bonding and can impact the establishment of a strong maternal-infant relationship.
What virus is highly contagious, spread through airborne particles, and can cause intrauterine fetal demise, skin scarring, eye, limb or neurologic abnormalities, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and low birth weight in the fetus?
- A. toxoplasmosis
- B. syphilis
- C. rubella
- D. Varicella (chickenpox)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Varicella (chickenpox). Varicella virus is highly contagious and spreads through airborne particles. It can cause intrauterine fetal demise, skin scarring, eye, limb, or neurologic abnormalities, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and low birth weight in the fetus. Varicella infection during pregnancy can lead to severe complications for both the mother and the fetus. Toxoplasmosis (A), syphilis (B), and rubella (C) can also cause complications during pregnancy, but they do not match all the characteristics mentioned in the question.
A high-risk labor patient progresses from preeclampsia to eclampsia. Aggressive management is instituted, and the fetus is delivered via cesarean birth. Which finding in the immediate postoperative period indicates that the patient is at risk of developing HELLP syndrome?
- A. Platelet count of 50,000/mcL
- B. Liver enzyme levels within normal range
- C. Negative for edema
- D. No evidence of nausea or vomiting
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count of 50,000/mcL. In HELLP syndrome, there is hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet count. A platelet count of 50,000/mcL indicates thrombocytopenia, a key feature of HELLP syndrome. It signifies ongoing coagulation abnormalities and liver dysfunction.
B: Liver enzyme levels within normal range is incorrect as HELLP syndrome typically presents with elevated liver enzymes.
C: Negative for edema is incorrect as edema is not a defining characteristic of HELLP syndrome.
D: No evidence of nausea or vomiting is incorrect as these symptoms are not specific to HELLP syndrome.
A patient has tested HIV-positive and has now discovered that she is pregnant. Which statement indicates that she understands the risks of this diagnosis?
- A. “I know I will need to have an abortion as soon as possible.”
- B. “Even though my test is positive, my baby might not be affected.”
- C. “My baby is certain to have AIDS and die within the first year of life.”
- D. “This pregnancy will probably decrease the chance that I will develop AIDS.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it shows understanding that a positive HIV test in the mother doesn't guarantee transmission to the baby. This reflects knowledge of the possibility of preventing mother-to-child transmission with proper medical care. Option A is incorrect as abortion is not the standard recommendation for HIV-positive pregnant women. Option C is incorrect as not all babies born to HIV-positive mothers will have AIDS or die within the first year. Option D is incorrect as pregnancy does not decrease the mother's chance of developing AIDS.