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A patient has a history of drug use and is screened for hepatitis B during the first trimester. Which action is most appropriate?
- A. Practice respiratory isolation.
- B. Plan for retesting during the third trimester.
- C. Discuss the recommendation to bottle feed her baby.
- D. Anticipate administering the vaccination for hepatitis B as soon as possible
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A person who has a history of high-risk behaviors, such as drug use, should be retested for hepatitis B during the third trimester. This is because the virus can have a long incubation period before showing up in blood tests. Retesting in the third trimester ensures that if the infection was acquired after the initial screening, it will be detected in time to provide appropriate care and interventions. Retesting is important in high-risk individuals to ensure proper management and prevention of hepatitis B transmission.
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A nurse is assessing population groups for therisk of suicide requiring medical attention. Which group should the nurse monitormostclosely?
- A. Young bisexuals
- B. Young caucasians
- C. Asian Americans
- D. African-Americans.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gay, lesbian, and bisexual young people have a significantly increased risk for depression, anxiety, suicide attempts, and substance use disorders. In particular, bisexual youth are at a higher risk than their straight peers for experiencing mental health issues and suicide attempts that require medical attention. Studies have shown that young bisexuals are four times more likely than their straight counterparts to make suicide attempts that necessitate medical intervention. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to closely monitor this population group for signs of suicidal behavior and provide the necessary support and interventions to prevent such tragedies.
Which assessment by the nurNseU wRoSuIldN dGiffTerBen.tiCatOe Ma placenta previa from an abruptio placentae?
- A. Saturated perineal pad in 1 hour
- B. Pain level 0 on a scale of 0 to 10
- C. Cervical dilation at 2 cm
- D. Fetal heart rate at 160 bpm
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the assessment of a patient with potential placenta previa or abruptio placentae, the nurse should pay close attention to the amount and characteristics of vaginal bleeding. Placenta previa typically presents with painless vaginal bleeding, which can be sudden and significant. Therefore, a saturated perineal pad within a short period of time (1 hour) is more indicative of placenta previa, as opposed to abruptio placentae which usually presents with painful vaginal bleeding and may not necessarily saturate a perineal pad quickly. Monitoring the amount of bleeding and keeping track of pad saturation over time can provide valuable information to differentiate between these two conditions.
A nurse needs to begin discharge planning fora patient admitted with pneumonia and a congested cough. When is the besttime the nurse should start discharge planningfor this patient?
- A. Upon admission
- B. Right before discharge
- C. After the congestion is treated
- D. When the primary care provider writes the order
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best time for a nurse to start discharge planning for a patient admitted with pneumonia and a congested cough is upon admission. Starting discharge planning early allows the healthcare team to identify the patient's needs, plan for the appropriate level of care, and ensure a smooth transition out of the hospital. Waiting until right before discharge or after the congestion is treated may lead to rushed or incomplete planning, potentially compromising the patient's recovery and post-discharge care. Additionally, discharge planning is not dependent on the primary care provider writing an order, as nurses can initiate teaching and planning proactively to support the patient's optimal recovery and transition. By beginning discharge planning upon admission, the healthcare team can address any potential barriers to discharge and ensure the patient's needs are met for a successful recovery process.
The patient asks the nurse what these numbers specifically mean. What is a correct response by the nurse?
- A. A person whose vision is 20/40 can see an object from 40 feet away that a person with 20/20 vision can see from 20 feet away.
- B. A person whose vision is 20/40 can see an object from 20 feet away that a person with 20/20 vision can see from 40 feet away.
- C. A person whose vision is 20/40 can see an object from 40 inches away that a person with 20/20 vision can see from 20 inches away.
- D. A person whose vision is 20/40 can see an object from 20 inches away that a person with 20/20 vision can see from 40 inches away.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A person whose vision is measured at 20/40 can see an object from 40 feet away that a person with 20/20 vision can see from 20 feet away. In this measurement system, the first number represents how far away the person is from the eye chart (the testing distance), and the second number indicates how far away a person with normal vision can be from the chart to see the same line of letters or objects. Therefore, if someone has 20/40 vision, it means they need to be at 20 feet to see what a person with 20/20 vision can see at 40 feet.
A nurse is discussing the advantages of a nursingclinical information system. Which advantage should the nurse describe?
- A. Varied clinical databases
- B. Reduced errors of omission
- C. Increased hospital costs
- D. More time to read charts
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: One of the key advantages associated with a nursing clinical information system is the reduction of errors of omission. By using an electronic system that prompts for required data entry and ensures completeness of documentation, nurses are less likely to miss important information, leading to improved patient care and safety. This advantage helps in promoting efficient communication among healthcare providers and contributes to better decision-making processes.