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A patient has just been admitted to the ICU after being in a severe auto accident and losing one of her legs. Her husband has his hand over his heart and complains of a rapid heart rate. The nurse recognizes his condition as a sign of which stage of the general adaptation syndrome to stress?
- A. Alarm stage
- B. Exhaustion stage
- C. Resistance stage
- D. Adaptation stage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alarm stage. The husband's rapid heart rate indicates the initial alarm reaction to stress, characterized by physiological arousal. This stage involves the body's fight-or-flight response to a stressor. In this scenario, the husband is experiencing the physiological effects of the stressful situation, such as the auto accident and loss of a limb. The other choices are incorrect because:
B: Exhaustion stage occurs if stress continues without relief, leading to depletion of resources and increased vulnerability to illness.
C: Resistance stage is the body's attempt to adapt and cope with the stressor after the initial alarm reaction.
D: Adaptation stage is not a recognized stage in the general adaptation syndrome model.
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The nurse is counseling a family about end-of-life care for their loved one. Which statement by the family indicates understanding of palliative care?
- A. Palliative care focuses on providing relief from pain and other symptoms.
- B. The goal of palliative care is to cure the patient’s disease.
- C. Palliative care is only provided during the final days of life.
- D. We will need to stop all treatments once palliative care begins.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because palliative care indeed focuses on providing relief from pain and other symptoms, enhancing quality of life for patients with serious illnesses. This aligns with the essence of palliative care, which is to provide holistic support to improve comfort and well-being. The other choices are incorrect: B is wrong because palliative care does not aim to cure the underlying disease but rather to alleviate suffering; C is incorrect as palliative care can be initiated earlier in the disease trajectory, not just during the final days; and D is inaccurate because patients can continue receiving treatments alongside palliative care to manage symptoms and improve their quality of life.
Continuous venovenous hemodialysis is used to
- A. remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection.
- B. remove plasma water in cases of volume overload.
- C. remove plasma water and solutes by adding dialysate.
- D. combine ultrafiltration, convection and dialysis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because continuous venovenous hemodialysis combines ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis techniques. Ultrafiltration removes excess fluid, convection helps in removing solutes, and dialysis involves the diffusion of solutes across a semipermeable membrane. This comprehensive approach ensures effective removal of both fluid and solutes in critically ill patients.
Incorrect Answer Analysis:
A: Removing fluids and solutes through convection alone is not the complete process in continuous venovenous hemodialysis.
B: While volume overload is addressed, continuous venovenous hemodialysis involves more than just removing plasma water.
C: Adding dialysate is not the primary method in continuous venovenous hemodialysis; it involves ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis techniques.
A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What assessment finding would be consistent with a basilar skull fracture?
- A. Hematemesis and abdominal distention.
- B. Asymmetry of the face and eye movements.
- C. Rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with Halo sign.
- D. Abnormal position and movement of the arm.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with Halo sign. This finding is consistent with a basilar skull fracture because it indicates a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak from the skull base. The Halo sign refers to a ring of CSF surrounded by blood, which can be seen on a white absorbent pad. This specific sign is a classic indicator of a basilar skull fracture, as the CSF leakage from the ears or nose can be tinged with blood due to the fracture disrupting nearby blood vessels.
For the other choices:
A: Hematemesis and abdominal distention are not typical manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. They are more indicative of gastrointestinal issues or internal bleeding.
B: Asymmetry of the face and eye movements can be seen with facial nerve or orbital injuries, but it is not specific to a basilar skull fracture.
D: Abnormal position and movement of the arm are not directly related to a
When assessing the patient for hypoxemia, the nurse recognizes what as an early sign of the effect of hypoxemia on the cardiovascular system?
- A. Heart block
- B. Restlessness
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Tachypnea
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Hypoxemia results in decreased oxygen levels in the blood, stimulating the body to increase heart rate to improve oxygen delivery. Tachycardia is an early sign of the cardiovascular system compensating for hypoxemia. Heart block (A) is a disruption in the electrical conduction within the heart and is not directly related to hypoxemia. Restlessness (B) is a non-specific sign and can be caused by various factors. Tachypnea (D) is an increased respiratory rate, which is a response to hypoxemia but not a direct effect on the cardiovascular system.
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. Wear the brace over a T-shirt 23 hours per day.
- B. Dress with the brace over regular clothing.
- C. Shower with the brace directly against the skin.
- D. Remove the brace just before going to bed.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because wearing the Milwaukee brace over a T-shirt ensures proper skin protection and ventilation. This helps prevent skin irritation and allows for comfortable wearing for long periods. Choice B may cause skin issues due to friction. Choice C is incorrect as moisture from showering can lead to skin problems. Choice D is incorrect as consistent wear is crucial for brace effectiveness.