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A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis. What symptom should the nurse expect to find during the assessment?
- A. Joint pain
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Loss of sensation
- D. Severe headache
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Muscle weakness. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by muscle weakness due to an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. This leads to impaired muscle contraction and weakness, especially in the face, neck, and extremities. Joint pain (A) is not a typical symptom of myasthenia gravis. Loss of sensation (C) is more indicative of a sensory nerve disorder rather than a motor disorder like myasthenia gravis. Severe headache (D) is not a common symptom of myasthenia gravis; it is more likely to be associated with other conditions such as migraines or intracranial pathology.
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During an assessment, a healthcare professional suspects a client has cholecystitis. What is a common symptom of this condition?
- A. Right upper quadrant pain
- B. Left lower quadrant pain
- C. Generalized abdominal pain
- D. Epigastric pain
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Right upper quadrant pain. Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder, typically caused by gallstones. The gallbladder is located in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is a common symptom. The pain may also radiate to the back or right shoulder. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not typically align with the specific location of the gallbladder or the characteristic pain associated with cholecystitis.
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing severe dyspnea. What position should the nurse encourage the patient to assume?
- A. Supine
- B. Prone
- C. High Fowler's
- D. Trendelenburg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: High Fowler's. This position helps improve lung expansion and breathing efficiency by maximizing chest expansion. Sitting upright reduces pressure on the diaphragm, allowing for better ventilation. Supine (A) position can worsen dyspnea by restricting lung expansion. Prone (B) position is not ideal for COPD patients as it can hinder breathing. Trendelenburg (D) position, where the patient's feet are elevated above the head, can increase pressure on the diaphragm and impair breathing, making it inappropriate for a patient experiencing severe dyspnea.
A 75-year-old patient is admitted for pancreatitis. Which tool would be the most appropriate for the nurse to use during the admission assessment?
- A. Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10)
- B. Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, Revised (CIWA-Ar)
- C. Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G)
- D. Mini-Mental State Examination
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most appropriate tool for the nurse to use during the admission assessment of a 75-year-old patient admitted for pancreatitis is the Screening Test-Geriatric Version (SMAST-G). This tool is specifically designed to assess for alcohol abuse in older adults, which is relevant in this case as alcohol consumption can be a risk factor for pancreatitis. The SMAST-G helps identify potential alcohol-related issues in the elderly population, allowing for appropriate interventions and care planning.
Rationale:
A: The Drug Abuse Screening Test (DAST-10) is not the most appropriate tool in this scenario as it focuses on broader drug abuse rather than specifically alcohol abuse.
B: The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, Revised (CIWA-Ar) is used to assess for alcohol withdrawal symptoms, not alcohol abuse itself.
D: The Mini-Mental State Examination is used to assess cognitive function, which is not directly relevant to the admission assessment for pancreatitis in this case.
What side effect should be monitored for in a patient with chronic heart failure taking spironolactone?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyponatremia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in patients with heart failure. It works by blocking the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and potential hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as hyperkalemia can increase the risk of arrhythmias and other cardiac complications in heart failure patients.
A: Hypokalemia is incorrect because spironolactone typically causes potassium retention.
C: Hyponatremia and D: Hypernatremia are incorrect as spironolactone does not directly affect sodium levels.
In summary, monitoring for hyperkalemia is essential in patients with heart failure taking spironolactone to prevent adverse cardiac events.
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What advice should the nurse give regarding insulin administration?
- A. Skip your insulin dose until you can eat.'
- B. Take your insulin as prescribed, but monitor your blood glucose closely.'
- C. Reduce your insulin dose by half.'
- D. Only take your long-acting insulin.'
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because skipping insulin can lead to dangerous complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. Taking insulin as prescribed ensures blood glucose control, preventing hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose closely helps adjust doses accordingly. Choice A is incorrect as skipping insulin can be life-threatening. Choice C is incorrect as reducing insulin without proper monitoring can lead to unstable glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect as both long-acting and short-acting insulin are essential for managing type 1 diabetes.