Nokea
A patient newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. When addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
- A. Pruritis (itching)
- B. Nausea and vomiting
- C. Altered glucose metabolism
- D. Confusion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting top the chemo side-effect list, hitting most patients due to drugs (e.g., cisplatin, doxorubicin) irritating the gut and triggering the brain's vomiting center. It can last 24-48 hours post-dose, often needing antiemetics like ondansetron. Pruritis might occur with specific agents or reactions, but it's less universal. Glucose metabolism shifts are rare, tied to steroids or endocrine effects, not a chemo hallmark. Confusion could stem from brain mets or fatigue, not a primary effect. Nurses prep patients for this duo nausea and vomiting ensuring they know it's manageable with meds and timing, easing anxiety and boosting adherence in early oncology treatment.
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A patient who is scheduled for a breast biopsy asks the nurse the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. Which answer by the nurse is correct?
- A. Benign tumors do not cause damage to other tissues.
- B. Benign tumors are likely to recur in the same location.
- C. Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs.
- D. Malignant cells reproduce more rapidly than normal cells.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Malignant tumors metastasize spreading to distant sites via lymph or blood unlike benign ones, which stay put. That's the key split. Benign tumors can still mess up nearby tissues by pressing on them (e.g., a benign meningioma squeezing brain), so A's off. B's wrong benign tumors rarely recur if fully removed; malignancy's more prone to that. D's a myth malignant cells don't always divide faster; some, like chronic leukemia, creep along. Nurses in oncology nail this down for patients facing biopsies, like this breast case, where fear of spread drives the question. Explaining metastasis clarifies why malignant's scarier it's not just growth, it's invasion, a game-changer for prognosis and treatment.
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with peripheral artery disease. Which of the following is a common assessment finding?
- A. 4+ pedal pulses
- B. 3+ pedal pulses
- C. Bounding pulses in all 4 extremities
- D. 1+ pedal pulses
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Peripheral artery disease (PAD) clogs arteries, slashing flow 1+ pedal pulses (weak, thready) are typical, reflecting ischemia below blockages. 4+ or 3+ pulses (strong) contradict PAD's hypoperfusion; bounding pulses suggest hyperdynamic states, not occlusion. Nurses expect weak pulses, checking for pain or pallor, key to tracking PAD's limb-threatening march, guiding interventions like revascularization.
Officially approved blood glucose meters used for self-testing and point-of-care diagnostics are not always suitable to measure the blood glucose values in neonates. Question: What is the main cause for this?
- A. Some meters are calibrated to plasma glucose and other meters to blood glucose
- B. Some measurement methods are sensitive to high levels of ascorbic acid (vitamin C)
- C. The measurement variation of some meters is too large
- D. Some meters are sensitive to abnormal haematocrit values
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Neonate glucose flubs haematocrit swings throw meters off, not calibration, vitamin C, or variance. Nurses adjust for this, a chronic baby glitch.
A new nurse has been assigned a client who is in the hospital to receive iodine-131 treatment. Which action by the nurse is best?
- A. Ensure the client is placed in protective isolation.
- B. Hand off a pregnant client to another nurse.
- C. No special action is necessary to care for this client.
- D. Read the policy on handling radioactive excreta.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Iodine-131 is a radioactive isotope used in treatments like thyroid cancer therapy, and it is excreted through body fluids such as urine and sweat. This poses a radiation hazard to healthcare workers and others if not managed properly. The best action for a new nurse is to read the facility's policy on handling radioactive excreta, as this ensures adherence to safety protocols specific to the institution, protecting both the nurse and the client. Protective isolation is not typically required for iodine-131 patients; instead, radiation precautions limit exposure to others. Handing off a pregnant client might be relevant in other contexts but isn't the priority here unless the nurse is pregnant herself, which isn't specified. Assuming no special action is needed is dangerous given the radioactive nature of the treatment. Reviewing the policy equips the nurse with the knowledge to manage waste, maintain a safe distance, and use protective equipment, aligning with radiation safety principles critical in oncology nursing.
An oncology patient has just returned from the postanesthesia care unit after an open hemicolectomy. This patient's plan of nursing care should prioritize which of the following?
- A. Assess the patient hourly for signs of compartment syndrome
- B. Assess the patient's fine motor skills once per shift
- C. Assess the patient's wound for dehiscence every 4 hours
- D. Maintain the patient's head of bed at 45 degrees or more at all times
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Post-hemicolectomy, wound dehiscence splitting open is a killer risk, tied to infection or poor healing, needing checks every 4 hours. Compartment syndrome's a fracture thing, not gut surgery. Fine motor's irrelevant here neuro's not the issue. High head-of-bed helps breathing but isn't universal post-op. Nurses in oncology prioritize this, catching leaks or redness early, critical after cancer gut surgery.