A patient presenting with chronic pelvic pain and heavy menstrual bleeding will be evaluated for what conditions? Select all that apply.
- A. endometriosis
- B. uterine fibroids
- C. ovarian cysts
- D. uterine polyps
Correct Answer: A,B,D
Rationale: The correct answer includes endometriosis, uterine fibroids, and uterine polyps due to their association with chronic pelvic pain and heavy menstrual bleeding. Endometriosis causes inflammation and scarring, leading to pain and abnormal bleeding. Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths in the uterus that can cause pain and heavy periods. Uterine polyps are overgrowths of the endometrial lining that can result in heavy bleeding. Ovarian cysts, although they can cause pelvic pain, are not typically associated with heavy menstrual bleeding.
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You are taking care of a patient who has had a colporrhaphy. Which option would indicate a priority assessment during the postoperative period?
- A. Documentation of a pessary in the operative procedure notes by the physician
- B. Removal of vaginal packing as ordered by the physician
- C. Use of a cell saver for transfusion therapy in the postoperative period
- D. Order for removal of staples 2 to 3 days post-procedure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Removal of vaginal packing as ordered by the physician. This is a priority assessment because leaving the vaginal packing in place for too long can lead to complications such as infection or tissue damage. It is important to follow the physician's orders for timely removal to prevent these risks.
A: Documentation of a pessary in the operative notes is important for accuracy but not a priority assessment in the postoperative period.
C: The use of a cell saver for transfusion therapy is not directly related to the immediate postoperative care of a colporrhaphy patient and is not a priority assessment in this context.
D: The removal of staples 2 to 3 days post-procedure is important but not as time-sensitive as the removal of vaginal packing. It can be done at a later stage without immediate risk to the patient.
Arrange the steps of the female menstrual cycle in the correct order of occurrence.
- A. Menstrual phase
- B. Premenstrual phase
- C. Secretory phase
- D. Proliferative phase
Correct Answer: A,D,C,B
Rationale: The correct order of the female menstrual cycle is: A (Menstrual phase) -> D (Proliferative phase) -> C (Secretory phase) -> B (Premenstrual phase).
1. Menstrual phase (A) involves shedding of the uterine lining.
2. Proliferative phase (D) follows, where the lining thickens in preparation for implantation.
3. Secretory phase (C) occurs next, characterized by further thickening and vascularization of the endometrium.
4. Finally, premenstrual phase (B) occurs, leading to the shedding of the uterine lining if fertilization does not occur.
Other choices are incorrect because they do not follow the chronological sequence of events in the menstrual cycle.
Which of the following structures is not in the urogenital triangle of the perineum?
- A. Anus
- B. Labia
- C. Vaginal orifice
- D. Urinary opening
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The anus is not located in the urogenital triangle of the perineum.
What question is most important for the nurse to ask a patient who presents with pelvic pain for the past year?
- A. Is the pain associated with having a bowel movement or passing urine?
- B. Have you had any unexplained weight loss?
- C. Have you tried taking ibuprofen or acetaminophen?
- D. Do you have many sexual partners?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because determining if the pain is associated with bowel movements or urination can help identify potential causes such as gastrointestinal or genitourinary issues. This information can guide further assessment and treatment.
Choice B is incorrect as unexplained weight loss is not directly related to pelvic pain assessment. Choice C is incorrect as asking about pain relief medication does not address the underlying cause of the pelvic pain. Choice D is incorrect as the number of sexual partners is not the most relevant question when assessing pelvic pain unless specific symptoms suggest a sexually transmitted infection.
The primary purpose of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) is to stimulate the:
- A. Development of the woman's breasts for lactation.
- B. Growth of pubic and axillary hair.
- C. Breakdown of the endometrium in the menstrual flow.
- D. Secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary gland.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: GnRH stimulates the anterior pituitary gland to release FSH and LH, which regulate reproductive functions.