Drug Classifications Nursing Chart

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A patient presents to the emergency department with a drug level of 50 units/mL. The half-life of this drug is 1 hour. With this drug, concentrations above 25 units/mL are considered toxic and no more drug is given. How long will it take for the blood level to reach the non-toxic range?

  • A. 30 minutes
  • B. 1 hour
  • C. 2 hours
  • D. 3 hours
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Half-life is the time required for the serum concentration of a drug to decrease by 50%. After 1 hour, the serum concentration would be 25 units/mL (50/2) if the body can properly metabolize and excrete the drug. After 2 hours, the serum concentration would be 12.5 units/mL (25/2) and reach the nontoxic range. In 30 minutes the drug level would be 37.5 units/mL, whereas in 3 hours the drug level would be 6.25.

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Which of the following drugs is NOT an aminoglycoside?

  • A. Streptomycin
  • B. Neomycin
  • C. Amikacin
  • D. Azithromycin
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic, not an aminoglycoside, unlike the others listed.

The nurse is preparing to administer Lanoxin to a patient on the telemetry unit. In addition to understanding the patient's diagnosis, the nurse must also know which characteristic(s) of the medication?(Select one that does not apply.)

  • A. Chemical composition
  • B. Adverse effects
  • C. Expected actions
  • D. Contraindications for use
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse must understand the individual patient's diagnosis and symptoms that correlate with the rationale for drug use. The nurse should also know why a medication is ordered, expected actions, usual dosing, proper dilution, route and rate of administration, adverse effects, and contraindications for the use of a particular drug. It is not required that the nurse know the chemical composition of the medication prior to administration.

In the presence of naloxone, a higher concentration of morphine is required to elicit full pain relief. Naloxone by it self has no effect. Which of the following is correct regarding these medications?

  • A. Naloxone is a competitive antagonist
  • B. Morphine is a full agonist, and naloxone is a partial agonist
  • C. Morphine is less efficacious than is naloxone
  • D. Morphine is less potent than is naloxone
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone shifts morphine's dose-response curve rightward (increased EC50), typical of competitive antagonism, with no intrinsic effect.

Both men and women experience bone loss with aging. The bones most likely to demonstrate significant loss are:

  • A. Cortical bones
  • B. Femoral neck bones
  • C. Cervical vertebrae
  • D. Pelvic bones
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Femoral neck is a trabecular bone site prone to significant age-related loss, unlike cortical or other areas .

Immunomodulators such as azathioprine may cause a delayed adverse drug reaction known as a type D reaction because they are known:

  • A. Teratogens
  • B. Carcinogens
  • C. To cause hypersensitivity reactions
  • D. Hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis suppressants
Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Azathioprine's Type D (delayed) ADRs, like cancer risk , emerge long-term, unlike teratogenicity , hypersensitivity , or HPA suppression .

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