Nokea
What is the mechanism of action of miglitol?
- A. Decreased glucagon release
- B. Increased insulin release
- C. Increased insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues
- D. Inhibits intestinal brush border enzymes
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Miglitol inhibits intestinal brush border enzymes, slowing carbohydrate digestion and absorption.
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The nurse caring for a patient who has tuberculosis and who is taking isoniazid, rifampin, and streptomycin reviews the medical record and notes the patient's sputum cultures reveal resistance to streptomycin. The nurse will expect the provider to order which drug?
- A. Isoniazid (INH)
- B. Pyrazinamide
- C. Rifampin (Rifadin)
- D. Streptomycin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: INH is the prophylactic standard for TB contacts; other drugs aren't typically used alone for this. INH is the drug of choice for prophylactic treatment of patients who have had close contact with a patient who has tuberculosis.
When a primary health care provider phones in a medication order for a client, the nurse should do which of the following? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. Write down the order.
- B. Record the order as soon as the MAR is retrieved.
- C. Repeat back the information exactly as written.
- D. Clarify any unclear information.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: If a verbal order is given over the telephone, the nurse writes down the order immediately, repeats back the information exactly as written, and then asks for a verbal confirmation that it is correct. Any order that is unclear should be questioned and clarified.
Treatment goals in prescribing should:
- A. Always be curative
- B. Be patient-centered
- C. Be convenient for the provider
- D. Focus on the cost of therapy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Patient-centered goals prioritize individual needs and outcomes, not just cure , provider convenience , or cost alone .
In the presence of naloxone, a higher concentration of morphine is required to elicit full pain relief. Naloxone by it self has no effect. Which of the following is correct regarding these medications?
- A. Naloxone is a competitive antagonist
- B. Morphine is a full agonist, and naloxone is a partial agonist
- C. Morphine is less efficacious than is naloxone
- D. Morphine is less potent than is naloxone
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone shifts morphine's dose-response curve rightward (increased EC50), typical of competitive antagonism, with no intrinsic effect.
A physician has ordered intramuscular (IM) injections of morphine, a narcotic, every 4 hours as needed for pain in a motor vehicle accident victim. The nurse is aware this drug has a high abuse potential. Under what category would morphine be classified?
- A. Schedule I
- B. Schedule II
- C. Schedule III
- D. Schedule IV
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Narcotics with a high abuse potential are classified as Schedule II drugs because of severe dependence liability. Schedule I drugs have high abuse potential and no accepted medical use. Schedule III drugs have a lesser abuse potential than II and an accepted medical use. Schedule IV drugs have low abuse potential and limited dependence liability.