You are discussing your patient's drug regimen with their primary care provider. The patient has seen two specialists since seeing the primary care provider and been diagnosed with renal impairment. Why would this be important information? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. Help promote a safe and effective medication regimen
- B. Help prevent medication errors
- C. So the physician can answer family questions
- D. Help prevent adverse effects
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Renal impairment affects drug clearance, making this information vital to prevent errors , adverse effects , and ensure safety/efficacy . Keeping everyone informed and answering family questions are secondary.
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A 60-year-old man with Type 2 diabetes mellitus is treated with pioglitazone. Which of the following phrases summarizes best this drug's main mechanism of action?
- A. Blocks intestinal carbohydrate absorption
- B. Causes glycosuria (increased renal glucose excretion)
- C. Increases hepatic gluconeogenesis
- D. Increases target tissue sensitivity to insulin
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pioglitazone enhances insulin sensitivity in target tissues like muscle and fat via PPAR-gamma activation.
When reviewing information about the Orphan Drug Program, which of the following would the nurse expect to find? (Select one that does not apply.)
- A. The program encourages the development and marketing of products to treat rare diseases.
- B. The program grants provisional approval with a written commitment from the drug company to formally demonstrate client benefits.
- C. The program provides for incentives, such as research grants, protocol assistance, and special tax credits, to develop products to treat rare diseases.
- D. The program grants 7 years of exclusive marketing rights to the manufacturer if approved.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The Orphan Drug Program encourages the development and marketing of products used to treat rare diseases. The program provides incentives to encourage manufacturers to develop orphan drugs, and if approved, the manufacturer has 7 years of exclusive marketing rights. Accelerated programs involve provisional approval and approval based on preliminary evidence.
59 old year female hospitalized in emergency department with confusion and breathlessness. Physical examination reveals: tachycardia, tachypnea and disorientation. Patient has diabetes type 2 and remember that she has taken a drug in the morning. Which of the following can cause the above mentioned symptoms:
- A. Acarbose
- B. Glipizide
- C. Glucagon
- D. Metformin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Glipizide can cause hypoglycemia leading to confusion, tachycardia, and breathlessness, especially if taken without food.
Which of the following drugs is considered a first-generation cephalosporin?
- A. Cefepime
- B. Cefazolin
- C. Ceftriaxone
- D. Cephalexin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cefazolin is a first-generation cephalosporin, effective against Gram-positive bacteria, unlike cefepime (fourth) or ceftriaxone (third).
Both men and women experience bone loss with aging. The bones most likely to demonstrate significant loss are:
- A. Cortical bones
- B. Femoral neck bones
- C. Cervical vertebrae
- D. Pelvic bones
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Femoral neck is a trabecular bone site prone to significant age-related loss, unlike cortical or other areas .