Please select a correct statement:
- A. The risk of glaucoma and cataract increases with long-term use of steroids
- B. in the case of long term corticosteroid therapy rapid withdrawal increase the risk of hypertonic crisis
- C. Prescribing steroids in the case of transplantation stimulated transplant rejection
- D. In the bone steroids decrease osteoclasts and increase osteoblasts
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Long-term steroid use increases the risk of glaucoma and cataracts due to ocular effects.
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Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:
- A. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia
- B. Potentiate the effects of the drug
- C. Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur
- D. Increase central nervous system 4 (iNS) rdey
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Benztropine reduces EPS, which can precede tardive dyskinesia in phenothiazine use.
Which of the following drug shows foetal hydantoin syndrome?
- A. Alcohol
- B. Phenytoin
- C. Ethosuximide
- D. Phenobarbitone
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Phenytoin is associated with fetal hydantoin syndrome, characterized by craniofacial abnormalities and growth deficits, due to its teratogenic effects during pregnancy.
The patient is taking low dose aspirin daily for his heart. The nurse knows only a portion of the medication taken actually reaches the tissue due to what process?
- A. Distribution
- B. First-pass effect
- C. Reduced absorption
- D. Gastrointestinal circulation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Drugs that are taken orally are usually absorbed from the small intestine directly into the portal venous system and then delivers these absorbed molecules into the liver, which immediately break the drug into metabolites, some of which are active and cause effects in the body, and some of which are deactivated and can be readily excreted from the body. As a result, a large percentage of the oral dose is destroyed at this point and never reaches the tissues. This process is not caused by distribution, absorption, or gastrointestinal circulation.
A patient presents to the emergency department with a drug level of 50 units/mL. The half-life of this drug is 1 hour. With this drug, concentrations above 25 units/mL are considered toxic and no more drug is given. How long will it take for the blood level to reach the non-toxic range?
- A. 30 minutes
- B. 1 hour
- C. 2 hours
- D. 3 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Half-life is the time required for the serum concentration of a drug to decrease by 50%. After 1 hour, the serum concentration would be 25 units/mL (50/2) if the body can properly metabolize and excrete the drug. After 2 hours, the serum concentration would be 12.5 units/mL (25/2) and reach the nontoxic range. In 30 minutes the drug level would be 37.5 units/mL, whereas in 3 hours the drug level would be 6.25.
Which of the following create a higher risk for digoxin toxicity? Both the cause and the reason for it must be correct.
- A. Older adults because of reduced renal function
- B. Administration of aldosterone antagonist diuretics because of decreased potassium levels
- C. Taking an antacid for gastroesophageal reflux disease because it increases the absorption of digoxin
- D. Doses between 0.25 and 0.5 mg/day
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Older adults have reduced renal clearance, increasing digoxin toxicity risk.