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A patient presents with fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after returning from a trip to sub-Saharan Africa. Laboratory tests reveal intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination. Which of the following is the most likely causative agent?
- A. Plasmodium falciparum
- B. Trypanosoma cruzi
- C. Borrelia burgdorferi
- D. Leishmania donovani
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of fever, chills, headache, and myalgia after a trip to sub-Saharan Africa is highly indicative of malaria. Specifically, the presence of intraerythrocytic ring forms and trophozoites on blood smear examination points towards Plasmodium falciparum as the most likely causative agent. Plasmodium falciparum is the most deadly of the Plasmodium species that cause malaria and is responsible for the majority of severe malaria cases worldwide. It is transmitted through the bite of infected Anopheles mosquitoes. Treatment for Plasmodium falciparum infection usually involves antimalarial medications such as artemisinin-based combination therapies.
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Which of the following actions is INAPPROPRIATE for a nurse leader to apply in a work setting?
- A. Ask staff members of their opinion on the natter.
- B. Modifies his own behavior favoring the needs of individual staff .
- C. Gives equal consideration to each staff members
- D. Plans and organizes group activities of staff members.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: While it is important for nurse leaders to seek input and feedback from staff members, the inappropriate aspect of this action lies in the lack of clarity. The option contains a typographical error "natter" instead of "matter," which may lead to confusion and hinder effective communication. Additionally, the word choice of "opinion" instead of a more structured and strategic approach like "feedback" or "input" could be improved for professional communication in the workplace. Therefore, this action may not be considered appropriate in a work setting due to potential misunderstandings that can arise from the lack of clarity in communication.
Nurse Nilda immediately responds to any cry from her pediatric patients because it is, which of the following reasons?
- A. to attend to her patients who cannot communicate verbally
- B. to check if the child is hungry or wet
- C. to lessen the noise overload in the Unit
- D. a powerful influence over that individual's interactions with others for the remainder of his/her 1ife
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nurse Nilda immediately responds to any cry from her pediatric patients to attend to her patients who cannot communicate verbally. Crying is one of the few ways infants and young children communicate their needs and discomforts. By responding promptly to their cries, Nurse Nilda can assess and address potential issues such as hunger, pain, discomfort, or other needs that the child may have. This enhances the quality of care provided and helps in comforting and soothing the child, ultimately promoting their well-being and building trust between the nurse and the patient.
Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient with a tension pneumothorax?
- A. Needle decompression
- B. Chest tube insertion
- C. High-flow oxygen therapy
- D. Incentive spirometry
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition where air accumulates in the pleural space and cannot escape, causing increased pressure in the chest cavity. This can lead to compression of the lung and major blood vessels, leading to inadequate oxygenation and circulation.
The patient has been ordered a regimen to treat a urinary tract infection and notifies the nurse that the patient's urine has turned an orange color. The nurse recognizes that the patient is most likely being treated with which drug?
- A. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
- B. Darifenacin hydrobromide (Enablex)
- C. Bethanechol Cl (Urecholine))
- D. Phenazopyridine HCl (Pyridium)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Phenazopyridine HCl (Pyridium) is a medication commonly used to relieve the pain, burning, and discomfort associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs). One of the notable side effects of Phenazopyridine is the discoloration of urine, turning it a rusty-red or orange color. This color change is harmless and temporary, but it can be alarming to patients who are unaware of this side effect. Therefore, if a patient undergoing treatment for a UTI notices their urine has turned orange, it is most likely due to the administration of Phenazopyridine.
A patient presents with well-demarcated, hypopigmented macules with fine scaling, affecting the trunk and proximal extremities. The patient reports a history of sun exposure and outdoor activities. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Tinea versicolor
- B. Vitiligo
- C. Pityriasis rosea
- D. Seborrheic keratosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of well-demarcated, hypopigmented macules with fine scaling on the trunk and proximal extremities is classic for tinea versicolor. Tinea versicolor is a common superficial fungal infection caused by Malassezia spp., which leads to hypo- or hyperpigmented patches on the skin. The condition often occurs in individuals with increased sebum production due to factors such as hot and humid climates, sweating, and oily skin. History of sun exposure and outdoor activities is also commonly reported by patients with tinea versicolor. Treatment usually involves antifungal medications applied topically or taken orally to eliminate the fungus. Differentiating tinea versicolor from other skin conditions, such as vitiligo, pityriasis rosea, or seborrheic keratosis, is important for appropriate management.