Nokea
A patient presents with sudden-onset severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and photophobia. On examination, there is neck stiffness and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
- A. Meningitis
- B. Subdural hematoma
- C. Intracerebral hemorrhage
- D. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The symptoms described - sudden-onset severe headache, nausea, vomiting, photophobia, neck stiffness, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs - are classic manifestations of meningitis. Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges, the protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord, often caused by infection. The sudden onset of these symptoms and signs, along with neck stiffness and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs (indicative of meningeal irritation), strongly suggest meningitis as the most likely diagnosis in this scenario.
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To remove the ingested poisonous substance, the physician ordered a gastric lavage. What is the role of the nurse immediately prior to the procedure?
- A. Get the right size of the nasogastric tube
- B. Remind parents to be careful next time
- C. Obtain an informed consent immediately
- D. Tell the parent that they are negligent
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prior to a gastric lavage procedure, it is essential for the nurse to ensure the correct size of the nasogastric tube is selected. The appropriate size of the tube will allow for effective removal of the ingested poisonous substance during the procedure. Proper sizing also helps in preventing complications such as injury to the gastrointestinal tract or inadequate removal of the substance. This step is crucial for the safe and successful completion of gastric lavage. Reminding parents to be careful, obtaining informed consent immediately, or accusing them of negligence are not immediate responsibilities of the nurse in this context.
One evening, Sonny complained of dyspnea despite continuous oxygen therapy. What should be the FIRST action of the nurse?
- A. Reassess the client.
- B. Give PRN medication.
- C. Assess the patency of the tubing.
- D. Refer client to the physician.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The FIRST action of the nurse should be to reassess the client experiencing dyspnea despite continuous oxygen therapy. Reassessment would involve checking the client's respiratory status, oxygen saturation levels, vital signs, and overall condition to gather more information about the situation. This will help the nurse identify any potential causes of the dyspnea and determine the appropriate next steps for intervention. Assessing the client before proceeding with any other actions is crucial in providing safe and effective care.
A patient presents with redness, pain, and photophobia in the left eye. Slit-lamp examination reveals ciliary injection, corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with fixed reaction to light. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
- A. Anterior uveitis
- B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
- C. Endophthalmitis
- D. Corneal abrasion
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation described in the question is classic for anterior uveitis. Anterior uveitis is an inflammatory condition affecting the iris and ciliary body and is characterized by redness, pain, and photophobia. Slit-lamp examination typically reveals ciliary injection (redness around the iris), corneal edema, and a mid-dilated pupil with a fixed reaction to light due to inflammation causing spasm of the iris muscles. Acute angle-closure glaucoma would present with similar symptoms but would also have increased intraocular pressure, which is not mentioned in the presentation. Endophthalmitis is an infection of the intraocular cavities and would typically present with more severe symptoms, such as severe pain, vision loss, and presence of pus in the eye. Corneal abrasion would present with pain, foreign body sensation, and possibly tearing but would not cause ciliary injection or fixed pupil reaction as
A patient presents with urinary urgency, frequency, and nocturia. On physical examination, there is enlargement of the prostate gland with a smooth, firm consistency on digital rectal examination (DRE). Which of the following conditions is most likely?
- A. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
- B. Prostate cancer
- C. Prostatitis
- D. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The clinical presentation of urinary urgency, frequency, and nocturia along with prostate enlargement with a smooth, firm consistency on digital rectal examination (DRE) is classic for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). BPH is a common condition in aging men characterized by non-malignant growth of the prostate gland, which can cause varying degrees of lower urinary tract symptoms due to obstruction of the urethra. In contrast, prostate cancer typically presents with findings like an asymmetric, hard, or nodular prostate on DRE, while prostatitis presents with symptoms like fever, perineal pain, and systemic symptoms. Urinary tract infection (UTI) may present with dysuria, frequency, urgency, and suprapubic pain, but it does not usually cause prostate enlargement.
Which among the following is TRUE about mother and child health in the Philippines (among ASEAN) that can be addressed by the Universal Health Law? I. Fastest decline in maternal mortality rate II. Number one highest in infant mortality rate III. Fastest rising HIV/AIDS IV. Highest TB burden
- A. II, III, IV
- B. I, II
- C. I, II, III
- D. III, IV
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The options provided focus on specific health indicators related to mother and child health in the Philippines among ASEAN countries that can be addressed by the Universal Health Law.