Nokea
A patient requires a nonopioid medication. The nurse knows that which medication will cause the least gastrointestinal distress?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Ketorolac
- C. Celecoxib
- D. Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Celecoxib is a selective COX-2 inhibitor, which means it primarily targets the COX-2 enzyme involved in inflammation and pain while sparing the COX-1 enzyme that protects the stomach lining. This selectivity reduces the risk of gastrointestinal distress, such as ulcers and bleeding, compared to non-selective NSAIDs like aspirin, ketorolac, and ibuprofen. Therefore, celecoxib is the best choice for patients who require a nonopioid medication with minimal gastrointestinal side effects. Nurses should consider this when selecting pain management options for patients with a history of gastrointestinal issues.
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Alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solution of volatile substances
- A. decoction
- B. fluid extract
- C. solution
- D. spirits
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A spirit is an alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solution of volatile substances obtained by distillation. It is commonly used in the production of alcoholic beverages and in the pharmaceutical industry for preparing tinctures and extracts. Spirits are characterized by their high alcohol content and ability to extract and preserve the properties of the substances they are derived from. Decoction is a method of extracting compounds from plants using boiling water, fluid extract is a concentrated liquid extract of a substance, solution refers to a homogeneous mixture of substances, and syrup is a thick, sweet liquid usually made by dissolving sugar in water.
Prototype of narcotic analgesic agents:
- A. morphine
- B. codeine
- C. heroin
- D. meperidine
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Morphine is the prototype of narcotic analgesic agents. It is a strong opioid analgesic that is commonly used for the relief of severe pain. Morphine acts on the central nervous system to reduce the perception of pain and is often used in medical settings, such as hospitals, to manage post-operative pain or pain associated with certain medical conditions like cancer. Other opioids, such as codeine, heroin, meperidine, and oxycodone, are derived from or related to morphine but may have different or varying levels of potency, side effects, and addiction potential.
A patient with a history of HF presents to the emergency department with difficulty breathing, cough, and edema of the lower extremities. The nurse anticipates administration of which type of medication?
- A. Positive chronotrope
- B. Negative chronotrope
- C. Positive inotrope
- D. Negative inotrope
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the scenario described, the patient with a history of heart failure (HF) is presenting with symptoms of difficulty breathing, cough, and edema of the lower extremities. These signs and symptoms suggest acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF), which is characterized by a decrease in cardiac output and inadequate tissue perfusion. In this situation, the nurse would anticipate the administration of a positive inotrope medication.
What is the pharmacological action of metformin?
- A. Biguanides
- B. Benzodiazepines
- C. Nitrates
- D. Digitalis glycosides
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metformin belongs to the class of medications known as biguanides. Biguanides work by decreasing glucose production in the liver and also improving insulin sensitivity in the muscles, helping to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes. Additionally, metformin can also reduce glucose absorption in the intestines and increase glucose uptake in peripheral tissues. Its main pharmacological action is to improve glycemic control and reduce hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes.
A patient is receiving an IV infusion of heparin and was started on warfarin therapy the night
- A. Which statement is most correct?
- B. The patient is receiving a double dose of anticoagulants.
- C. The heparin therapy was ineffective, so the warfarin was starte
- D. The heparin provides anticoagulation until therapeutic levels of warfarin are reache
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct statement is that the heparin provides anticoagulation until therapeutic levels of warfarin are reached. Heparin and warfarin are both anticoagulants but work in different ways. Heparin acts quickly to prevent blood clot formation while warfarin takes several days to reach its full effect. Therefore, heparin is often used initially to provide immediate anticoagulation while waiting for the warfarin to reach therapeutic levels. This dual therapy is common in clinical practice to ensure continuous anticoagulation.