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A patient undergoing IVF asks about the risks of transferring multiple embryos. What should the nurse discuss?
- A. Increased chances of multiple pregnancies, which can pose risks to both mother and babies.
- B. Reduced implantation rates due to overcrowding in the uterus.
- C. Improved success rates with no associated risks.
- D. Increased likelihood of genetic abnormalities.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because transferring multiple embryos during IVF increases the likelihood of multiple pregnancies, which can lead to complications for both the mother and babies, such as preterm birth and low birth weight. This is a well-documented risk in IVF procedures.
Choice B is incorrect because overcrowding in the uterus does not reduce implantation rates; rather, it can increase the chances of successful implantation of the embryos.
Choice C is incorrect as transferring multiple embryos does not guarantee improved success rates and can actually increase the risks associated with multiple pregnancies.
Choice D is incorrect because while there is a slightly increased risk of genetic abnormalities in pregnancies resulting from IVF, the primary concern related to transferring multiple embryos is the increased risk of multiple pregnancies.
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What advice should the nurse give a patient with irregular periods trying to conceive?
- A. Track ovulation using basal body temperature and ovulation kits.
- B. Increase carbohydrate intake to regulate cycles.
- C. Avoid exercise to prevent further irregularity.
- D. Undergo hormone therapy immediately.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because tracking ovulation using basal body temperature and ovulation kits helps identify the most fertile days for conception. This method allows the patient to time intercourse effectively. Increasing carbohydrate intake (B) does not address the root cause of irregular periods. Avoiding exercise (C) is not recommended as moderate exercise can actually help regulate menstrual cycles. Undergoing hormone therapy immediately (D) is an aggressive approach and should only be considered after other options have been explored.
A newly married woman states, "My friend told me I would never have a baby because I had pelvic inflammatory disease when I was younger. I don't understand how that can affect whether or not I get pregnant." The nurse's most appropriate response is
- A. "Your friend may be right. The disease may affect your ability to conceive."
- B. "Pelvic inflammatory disease may damage the ovaries and prevent ovulation."
- C. "Your friend has been misinformed. Fallopian tube damage occurs only following gonorrhea."
- D. "Infection may cause scarring and obstruction of the fallopian tubes, which can prevent the fertilized egg from reaching the uterus."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) can lead to scarring and obstruction of the fallopian tubes. This can prevent the fertilized egg from traveling to the uterus for implantation, thus affecting fertility. Choice A is incorrect as it makes a definitive statement without considering individual variations in the impact of PID. Choice B is incorrect because while PID can lead to ovarian damage, it primarily affects the fallopian tubes. Choice C is incorrect as fallopian tube damage can result from various infections, not just gonorrhea. Thus, the most appropriate response is D, as it directly addresses how PID can impact fertility through fallopian tube obstruction.
What is the primary purpose of performing a semen analysis during infertility testing?
- A. To determine the presence of infections.
- B. To evaluate sperm count, motility, and morphology.
- C. To check for hormonal imbalances.
- D. To test for genetic abnormalities in sperm.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary purpose of performing a semen analysis during infertility testing is to evaluate sperm count, motility, and morphology. This is crucial in assessing male fertility potential. Sperm count indicates the quantity of sperm, motility refers to their ability to move effectively, and morphology assesses the shape and structure of sperm. These factors directly impact the likelihood of successful fertilization. Checking for infections (choice A) is important but not the primary purpose. Hormonal imbalances (choice C) are typically evaluated through blood tests, not semen analysis. Testing for genetic abnormalities in sperm (choice D) is a separate test and not the primary focus of a semen analysis.
A genetic counselor's report states, 'The genetic nomenclature for this fetus is 46, XX.' How should the nurse who reads this report interpret the cytogenetic results?
- A. The baby is female with a normal number of chromosomes.
- B. The baby is hermaphroditic male with female chromosomes.
- C. The baby is male with an undisclosed genetic anomaly.
- D. There is insufficient information to answer this question.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: 46, XX indicates a genetically normal female.
During preconception counseling, a nurse discusses the impact of male age on fertility. What statement requires correction?
- A. Pregnancy rates are not related to the age of the male partner.
- B. Sexually active males should be routinely tested for STIs and treated appropriately.
- C. Maintaining a healthy weight is important for the reproductive health of both female and male partners.
- D. Certain medications, such as testosterone supplementation and chemotherapy, can impact male fertility.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because male age does impact fertility. Advanced paternal age is associated with decreased fertility and increased risk of genetic abnormalities in offspring. Choice B is correct as STIs can affect fertility. Choice C is relevant as obesity can impact male fertility. Choice D is correct as certain medications can impact male fertility. Overall, choice A is incorrect as male age does play a role in fertility outcomes.