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A patient undergoing ovarian stimulation is concerned about side effects. What should the nurse include in patient education?
- A. Side effects are rare and do not require monitoring.
- B. Mild bloating and mood changes are common during stimulation.
- C. The risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) is negligible.
- D. Stimulation guarantees the production of high-quality eggs.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale:
Bloating and mood changes are common side effects of ovarian stimulation due to hormonal changes. Educating the patient about this prepares them for possible discomfort. Incorrect choices: A is incorrect as side effects are common and may require monitoring. C is incorrect as OHSS is a potential serious complication. D is incorrect as stimulation does not guarantee egg quality.
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A client is receiving Pergonal (menotropins) intramuscularly for ovarian stimulation. Which of the following is a common side effect of this therapy?
- A. Piercing rectal pain.
- B. Mood swings.
- C. Visual disturbances.
- D. Jerky tremors.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mood swings are a known side effect of hormonal therapies like Pergonal.
Which situation best describes secondary infertility in a couple?
- A. Never conceived.
- B. Had repeated spontaneous abortions.
- C. Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse.
- D. Has one child but cannot conceive a second time.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because secondary infertility refers to the inability of a couple to conceive after having one or more children without any fertility issues. This situation indicates that the couple had a successful pregnancy in the past but is now facing difficulties conceiving again.
A, B, and C are incorrect:
A: Never conceived - This does not align with the definition of secondary infertility as it involves a previous successful pregnancy.
B: Had repeated spontaneous abortions - This refers to recurrent pregnancy loss, not secondary infertility.
C: Not conceived after 1 year of unprotected intercourse - This describes primary infertility, not secondary infertility.
A client, G4 P4004, states that her husband has just been diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease (PKD), an autosomal dominant disease. The husband is heterozygous for PKD, while the client has no PKD genes. The client states, 'I have not had our children tested because they have such a slim chance of inheriting the disease. We intend to wait until they are teenagers to do the testing.' The nurse should base her reply on which of the following?
- A. Because affected individuals rarely exhibit symptoms before age 60
- B. the children should be allowed to wait until they are adults to be tested.
- C. The woman may be exhibiting signs of denial since each of the couple's children has a 50/50 chance of developing the disease.
- D. Because the majority of the renal cysts that develop in affected individuals are harmless
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Each child of a heterozygous parent has a 50% chance of inheriting the gene.
During a fertility consultation, a couple inquires about polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). What should the nurse include in the explanation?
- A. PCOS only affects a woman's menstrual cycle.
- B. PCOS can cause irregular ovulation and hormonal imbalances.
- C. PCOS is not related to weight or lifestyle factors.
- D. PCOS has no impact on fertility treatment outcomes.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: PCOS is a complex hormonal disorder affecting women's reproductive systems.
Step 2: It can lead to irregular ovulation, making it difficult to conceive.
Step 3: Hormonal imbalances in PCOS can affect fertility by disrupting the menstrual cycle.
Step 4: Therefore, the nurse should include that PCOS can cause irregular ovulation and hormonal imbalances in the explanation.
Summary: Option B is correct as it highlights the key features of PCOS impacting fertility. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because PCOS affects more than just the menstrual cycle, it is related to weight and lifestyle factors, and it can impact fertility treatment outcomes.
A patient undergoing fertility treatments asks about the role of luteinizing hormone (LH). What should the nurse explain?
- A. LH stimulates the growth of the uterine lining.
- B. LH triggers ovulation by causing the release of a mature egg from the ovary.
- C. LH suppresses follicle development in the early cycle.
- D. LH is only important during pregnancy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because LH triggers ovulation by causing the release of a mature egg from the ovary. LH surge occurs around mid-cycle, stimulating the mature follicle to rupture and release the egg. This is crucial for fertility and conception.
A is incorrect because LH does not stimulate the growth of the uterine lining; that is primarily regulated by estrogen and progesterone.
C is incorrect because LH actually promotes follicle development and maturation.
D is incorrect because LH is important for ovulation and not just during pregnancy.