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A patient who is scheduled for a breast biopsy asks the nurse the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. Which answer by the nurse is correct?
- A. Benign tumors do not cause damage to other tissues.
- B. Benign tumors are likely to recur in the same location.
- C. Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs.
- D. Malignant cells reproduce more rapidly than normal cells.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Malignant tumors metastasize spreading to distant sites via lymph or blood unlike benign ones, which stay put. That's the key split. Benign tumors can still mess up nearby tissues by pressing on them (e.g., a benign meningioma squeezing brain), so A's off. B's wrong benign tumors rarely recur if fully removed; malignancy's more prone to that. D's a myth malignant cells don't always divide faster; some, like chronic leukemia, creep along. Nurses in oncology nail this down for patients facing biopsies, like this breast case, where fear of spread drives the question. Explaining metastasis clarifies why malignant's scarier it's not just growth, it's invasion, a game-changer for prognosis and treatment.
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A nurse is caring for a client recently diagnosed with pericarditis. Which of the following is a common assessment finding with this disorder?
- A. Elevated troponin
- B. Pericardial friction rub
- C. Heart failure
- D. ST-segment depression
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pericarditis rubs the sac pericardial friction rub, a scratchy sound, marks inflammation, a common find as layers grate. Troponin rises with muscle damage, not here. Heart failure or ST depression hints tamponade or ischemia, not direct. Nurses auscultate this rub, tying it to pericarditis's irritated core, a diagnostic bellwether.
Mr Yee two months later. At your last visit he did not want colchicine prophylaxis as he did not want to take 'too many tablets'. He has started and is adherent to his urate lowering agent. Last month, his uric acid had decreased to 390 mmol/L. He had a gout flare last week, hence he came to your clinic today to ask about colchicine prophylaxis. Which is correct advice regarding colchicine prophylaxis?
- A. Offer to start colchicine at 500 mcg once daily or alternate days as gout prophylaxis as his renal function is abnormal
- B. Colchicine cannot help to reduce the frequency of flares especially during the first six months of Urate lowering therapy
- C. Tell him that if he is started on clarithromycin, he does not need to inform his doctor or pharmacist that he is on colchicine regularly as colchicine can have drug interactions
- D. Regular colchicine prophylaxis in someone with normal renal function and regular monitoring can lead to renal failure
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: With eGFR 55 mL/min and a recent flare despite uric acid dropping to 390 mmol/L, colchicine prophylaxis at 500 mcg daily or alternate days is appropriate, adjusting for reduced renal clearance to prevent toxicity. Flares are common early in ULT as urate mobilizes, and colchicine reduces this, contrary to the false claim it can't help. Clarithromycin interacts dangerously with colchicine (CYP3A4 inhibition), requiring disclosure. Colchicine doesn't cause renal failure with monitoring; toxicity does. This dose suits chronic gout management safely.
Which of the following statements regarding dietary approaches to obesity treatment is TRUE?
- A. Dietary modifications are generally not sustainable and hence dietary approaches are not as important as pharmacological approaches
- B. There is no Randomised Controlled Trial (RCT) level of evidence regarding decreasing sugar sweetened beverages
- C. Dietary approaches can be broadly categorised into energy-focused, macronutrient-focused, dietary pattern-focused, and dietary timing-focused
- D. Long-term diet trials have shown intermittent fasting to be superior to continuous energy restriction with respect to average weight loss
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diet's obesity fight splits smart energy, macros, patterns, and timing frame approaches, a true lens on options like low-carb or fasting. Sustainability varies, RCTs back sugar cuts, fasting ties (not tops) restriction, and proteins sate more than carbs. Clinicians wield this quartet, tailoring chronic plans, a broad truth in food's fat battle.
The nurse teaches a patient with cancer of the liver about high-protein, high-calorie diet choices. Which snack choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective?
- A. Lime sherbet
- B. Blueberry yogurt
- C. Fresh strawberries
- D. Cream cheese bagel
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Liver cancer tanks metabolism yogurt's protein and fat (high biologic value) fuel repair and calories, beating sherbet's sugar , strawberries' low heft , and cream cheese's protein-light bagel . Nurses in oncology push this dense nutrition fights cachexia, a liver patient's foe, showing teaching stuck.
A nurse works with clients who have alopecia from chemotherapy. What action by the nurse takes priority?
- A. Helping clients adjust to their appearance
- B. Reassuring clients that this change is temporary
- C. Referring clients to a reputable wig shop
- D. Teaching measures to prevent scalp injury
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Alopecia, or hair loss, is a common chemotherapy side effect due to drugs targeting rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles. While emotional support is vital, the priority is client safety. Teaching measures to prevent scalp injury such as avoiding harsh brushing or sun exposure takes precedence because the scalp becomes vulnerable without hair's protective barrier, risking cuts, infections, or burns. Helping clients adjust to appearance and reassuring them about regrowth address psychosocial needs but don't mitigate physical risk. Referring to a wig shop is practical but secondary to safety. In oncology nursing, prioritizing physical protection aligns with the hierarchy of needs, ensuring the client avoids complications like infection, especially if immunocompromised, before addressing emotional impacts.