A patient with epilepsy is prescribed phenytoin. What is the primary side effect the nurse should monitor for?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Gingival hyperplasia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperkalemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival overgrowth as a side effect. This is due to its effect on fibroblasts in the gums, leading to increased connective tissue production. Hypotension (A), bradycardia (C), and hyperkalemia (D) are not common side effects of phenytoin. Monitoring for gingival hyperplasia is crucial to prevent complications such as difficulty in eating, speaking, and maintaining oral hygiene.
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The healthcare provider formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely cause for this nursing diagnosis?
- A. Pain during coughing.
- B. Diminished cough effort.
- C. Thick, dry secretions.
- D. Excessive inflammation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness can affect the muscles involved in coughing, leading to diminished cough effort. This can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at high risk for respiratory complications. Pain during coughing (choice A) may occur but is not the primary cause of ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis. Thick, dry secretions (choice C) and excessive inflammation (choice D) may contribute to airway clearance issues but are not as directly related to the underlying muscle weakness seen in myasthenia gravis.
The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of 'High risk for ineffective airway clearance' for a client with myasthenia gravis. What is the most likely etiology for this nursing diagnosis?
- A. Pain when coughing.
- B. Diminished cough effort.
- C. Thick, dry secretions.
- D. Excessive inflammation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diminished cough effort. In myasthenia gravis, muscle weakness can affect the respiratory muscles, leading to ineffective coughing and clearance of airways. Diminished cough effort can result in ineffective airway clearance, putting the client at high risk for respiratory complications.
A: Pain when coughing is not the primary etiology for ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis.
C: Thick, dry secretions may contribute to airway clearance issues but are not the most likely etiology compared to diminished cough effort.
D: Excessive inflammation is not typically associated with ineffective airway clearance in myasthenia gravis.
When should surgical correction of hypospadias typically occur for a newborn infant as advised by the nurse?
- A. Repair should be done within one month to prevent bladder infections.
- B. Repairs should typically be done before the child is potty-trained.
- C. Delaying the repair until school age reduces castration fears.
- D. To form a proper urethra repair, it should be done after sexual maturity.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because surgical correction of hypospadias is typically recommended before the child is potty-trained. This is important for optimal cosmetic and functional outcomes, as the procedure is more straightforward in infants due to their smaller anatomy. Delaying the surgery can lead to increased risk of complications and potential psychological impact on the child as they grow older.
A: Repair within one month to prevent bladder infections is not the primary reason for early correction of hypospadias.
C: Delaying the repair to school age for reducing castration fears is not a valid reason for postponing the surgery.
D: Waiting until after sexual maturity to form a proper urethra repair is not recommended as early correction typically yields better results.
A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with increasing shortness of breath. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Barrel-shaped chest.
- B. Use of accessory muscles to breathe.
- C. Oxygen saturation of 88%.
- D. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oxygen saturation of 88%. In COPD patients, low oxygen saturation indicates inadequate gas exchange and potential respiratory distress. Oxygen saturation below 90% requires immediate intervention to prevent hypoxemia. A: Barrel-shaped chest is a common finding in COPD due to hyperinflation, but it is not a critical indicator of acute exacerbation. B: Use of accessory muscles suggests increased work of breathing but may not be as urgent as low oxygen saturation. D: Respiratory rate is within normal range, so it is less concerning than the low oxygen saturation.
A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take your pulse before each dose and hold the medication if your pulse is below 60 beats per minute.
- B. Increase your intake of foods high in potassium.
- C. Take the medication with a high-fiber meal to enhance absorption.
- D. Skip a dose if you feel dizzy or lightheaded.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
1. Digoxin is a medication that can cause bradycardia as a side effect.
2. Instructing the client to take their pulse before each dose is crucial to monitor for bradycardia.
3. Holding the medication if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute helps prevent potential adverse effects.
4. This instruction ensures the client's safety and adherence to the prescribed regimen.
Summary:
- Choice B is incorrect because increasing potassium intake can lead to hyperkalemia when taking digoxin.
- Choice C is incorrect as taking digoxin with a high-fiber meal may affect absorption negatively.
- Choice D is incorrect because skipping a dose based on dizziness or lightheadedness may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.
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