Genitourinary System Quizlet

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A patient with HIV-AIDS being treated with combined antiviral drugs and immunosuppressive agents, develops an opportunistic infection caused by Pneumocystis carinii. Which of the following drugs most likely be used in the treatment of pulmonary infection caused by P. carinii?

  • A. Metronidazole
  • B. Carbenicillin
  • C. Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole
  • D. Penicillin G
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole. This combination is the first-line treatment for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in patients with HIV-AIDS due to its efficacy against the organism. Trimethoprim inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, while sulfamethoxazole inhibits dihydropteroate synthase, both essential enzymes for folate synthesis in bacteria and protozoa like P. carinii. Metronidazole (A) is used for anaerobic infections, Carbenicillin (B) is a penicillinase-resistant penicillin used for Gram-negative infections, and Penicillin G (D) is a narrow-spectrum antibiotic mainly used for Gram-positive infections.

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A patient with a recent history of nephrolithiasis has

  • A. After determining that the patients
  • B. Irrigate the ileal conduit with a dilute citric acid
  • D. IV fluid administration
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: IV fluid administration. This is the most appropriate choice for a patient with nephrolithiasis as it helps to increase urine volume and dilute the concentration of minerals in the urine, reducing the risk of stone formation. Adequate hydration is crucial in preventing the recurrence of kidney stones. Choice A is incomplete and does not offer a specific intervention for nephrolithiasis. Choice B is unnecessary and could potentially cause harm by altering the pH of the urine. Choice C is blank and does not provide any relevant information for managing nephrolithiasis.

The nurse plans care for the patient with APSGN based on what knowledge?

  • A. [choice A]
  • B. [choice B]
  • C. [choice C]
  • D. [choice D]
Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because APSGN (Acute Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis) is caused by an immune response to a streptococcal infection. Therefore, the nurse must understand the pathophysiology, signs/symptoms, treatment, and potential complications associated with APSGN to provide effective care. Choice A, B, and C may not directly address the specific knowledge needed to care for a patient with APSGN, making them incorrect options.

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of alprostadil?

  • A. Alprostadil increases cAMP
  • B. Alprostadil increases cGMP
  • C. Alprostadil increases PDE-5
  • D. Alprostadil blocks NO (nitric oxide)
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Alprostadil is a prostaglandin E1 analog that works by binding to specific receptors and activating adenylate cyclase, leading to increased levels of cAMP. This results in smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B and C are incorrect as alprostadil does not directly affect cGMP levels or PDE-5 activity. Choice D is also incorrect as alprostadil does not block nitric oxide, but rather enhances its effects through the cAMP pathway.

The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is : *

  • A. Nausea and vomiting
  • B. Loose bowel movements
  • C. Constipation
  • D. Urticaria
Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea and vomiting. Oral ampicillin commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting due to its impact on the gut flora. This side effect is a result of the antibiotic's mechanism of action and is well-documented in clinical practice. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as loose bowel movements, constipation, and urticaria are not typically associated with oral ampicillin use.

Which statement best describes Zidovudine: *

  • A. Zidovudine in combination with other antiretrovirals is an alternative initial treatment for HIV infection.
  • B. Zidovudine is also used to prevent transmission of HIV from the mother to her
  • C. Zidovudine is converted by cellular enzymes to an active form, zidovudine diphosphate, which prevents viral DNA from replicating.
  • D. Peripheral neuropathy is a specic adverse reaction to Zidovudine
Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C):
1. Zidovudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) used in the treatment of HIV.
2. Zidovudine is indeed converted by cellular enzymes to its active form, zidovudine diphosphate.
3. Zidovudine diphosphate inhibits the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing viral DNA replication in HIV-infected cells.
4. This mechanism of action is crucial in reducing viral load and slowing disease progression in HIV patients.

Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Incorrect. While Zidovudine is used in combination therapy for HIV, it is not typically an alternative initial treatment.
B: Incorrect. Zidovudine can be used to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV, but it is not its primary indication.
D: Incorrect. Peripheral neuropathy is not a specific adverse reaction to Zidovudine; rather, it is more commonly associated with

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