Nokea
During a speculum inspection of the vagina, the nurse would expect to see what at the end of the vaginal canal?
- A. Cervix
- B. Uterus
- C. Ovaries
- D. Fallopian tubes
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cervix. During a speculum inspection, the nurse would expect to see the cervix at the end of the vaginal canal. The cervix is the lower part of the uterus that connects the uterus to the vagina. It appears as a small, round structure at the end of the vaginal canal. This is an important part of the female reproductive system that can be visualized during a speculum examination.
Summary:
B: Uterus - Incorrect as the uterus is located above the cervix and is not visible at the end of the vaginal canal.
C: Ovaries - Incorrect as the ovaries are located on either side of the uterus and are not visible during a speculum examination.
D: Fallopian tubes - Incorrect as the fallopian tubes are not visible during a speculum examination as they are located above the ovaries and connect the ovaries to the uterus.
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The nurse is describing how to perform a testicular self-examination to a patient. Which statement is most appropriate?
- A. “A good time to examine your testicles is just before you take a shower.â€
- B. “If you notice an enlarged testicle or a painless lump, call your health care provider.â€
- C. “The testicle is egg shaped and movable. It feels firm and has a lumpy consistency.â€
- D. “Perform a testicular examination at least once a week to detect the early stages of testicular cancer.â€
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it emphasizes the importance of seeking medical advice if any abnormalities are detected during the self-examination. This statement encourages prompt action and follow-up with a healthcare provider, which is crucial for early detection and treatment of testicular cancer.
Incorrect options:
A: Timing of the examination is not as critical as the action to take if abnormalities are found.
C: Describing the testicle's shape and texture is not the primary focus of a testicular self-examination.
D: Performing the examination once a week is excessive and not recommended by medical guidelines.
A 35 year old man heroin addict on methadone maintenance therapy for the last one year, is positive for TB on Chest x-ray. He was started on standard quadri anti-TB drug. He is rushed to ER complaining of withdrawal symptoms. Which of the following anti-TB drugs is likely to cause this patient’s withdrawal reaction?
- A. Streptomycin
- B. Rifampicin
- C. INH
- D. Pyrazinamide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is known to induce cytochrome P450 enzymes, leading to increased metabolism of methadone and subsequently causing withdrawal symptoms in methadone-maintained patients. Streptomycin (A) is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used in TB treatment but does not interact with methadone. INH (C) and Pyrazinamide (D) do not have significant interactions with methadone metabolism. Therefore, Rifampicin is the likely cause of this patient's withdrawal symptoms.
A 33-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a history of abnormal vaginal bleeding and pelvic pain. The nurse suspects that she might have fibroids. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find upon examination?
- A. An enlarged, irregular uterus that may be tender to palpation.
- B. An enlarged uterus with smooth contours and no tenderness.
- C. A smooth, tender uterus.
- D. A tender, soft, mobile uterus.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because fibroids typically present as an enlarged, irregular uterus that may be tender to palpation. Fibroids are non-cancerous growths in the uterus that can cause abnormal bleeding and pelvic pain. The irregular shape and tenderness are characteristic findings of fibroids.
Option B is incorrect because fibroids are not typically smooth and do not have smooth contours. Option C is incorrect because fibroids are not usually smooth and tender. Option D is incorrect because fibroids are not soft or mobile; they are usually firm and fixed in place within the uterus.
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of alprostadil?
- A. Alprostadil increases cAMP
- B. Alprostadil increases cGMP
- C. Alprostadil increases PDE-5
- D. Alprostadil blocks NO (nitric oxide)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alprostadil is a prostaglandin E1 analog that works by binding to specific receptors and activating adenylate cyclase, leading to increased levels of cAMP. This results in smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B and C are incorrect as alprostadil does not directly affect cGMP levels or PDE-5 activity. Choice D is also incorrect as alprostadil does not block nitric oxide, but rather enhances its effects through the cAMP pathway.
The antiviral action of amantadine is exerted through: *
- A. Inhibition of viral protease enzyme
- B. Inhibition of viral RNA mediated DNA synthesis
- C. Interaction with the viral M2 protein
- D. Interaction with a virus directed thymidine kinase
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Interaction with the viral M2 protein. Amantadine blocks the M2 ion channel of the influenza A virus, preventing the release of viral RNA into the host cell. This inhibits the viral replication process. Option A is incorrect as amantadine does not target viral protease enzymes. Option B is incorrect as amantadine does not inhibit viral RNA-mediated DNA synthesis, which is a process specific to retroviruses. Option D is incorrect as amantadine does not interact with virus-directed thymidine kinase, which is involved in the activation of certain antiviral medications.