The nurse is teaching a health class about UTIs to a appropriate response?
- A. Document the presence of a healthy stom
- C. Assess the patient for further signs and symptoms of
- D. Men over age 65 are equally prone to UTIs as infection.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because assessing the patient for further signs and symptoms of UTI is crucial for timely diagnosis and treatment. By evaluating additional symptoms such as frequency, urgency, dysuria, and hematuria, the nurse can confirm the presence of a UTI. This step is essential for appropriate management and preventing complications.
Choice A is incorrect because documenting a healthy stomach does not address the assessment and management of UTIs. Choice B is incomplete and does not provide any relevant information about UTIs. Choice D is incorrect as men over age 65 are actually less prone to UTIs compared to women.
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A patient with a recent history of nephrolithiasis has
- A. After determining that the patients
- B. Irrigate the ileal conduit with a dilute citric acid
- D. IV fluid administration
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: IV fluid administration. This is the most appropriate choice for a patient with nephrolithiasis as it helps to increase urine volume and dilute the concentration of minerals in the urine, reducing the risk of stone formation. Adequate hydration is crucial in preventing the recurrence of kidney stones. Choice A is incomplete and does not offer a specific intervention for nephrolithiasis. Choice B is unnecessary and could potentially cause harm by altering the pH of the urine. Choice C is blank and does not provide any relevant information for managing nephrolithiasis.
A physician is caring for a patient with a urinary tract infection. The physician would expect the plan of care to include:
- A. Antibiotics and phenazopyridine.
- B. Erythropoietin and stent placement.
- C. Hormonal therapy and intravenous fluids.
- D. Hourly urine output measurements and antibiotics.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antibiotics and phenazopyridine. Antibiotics are essential to treat the bacterial infection causing the UTI. Phenazopyridine can help relieve urinary discomfort. Erythropoietin and stent placement (B) are not indicated for UTI. Hormonal therapy and IV fluids (C) are not standard treatments for UTI. Hourly urine output measurements and antibiotics (D) are not typically necessary, as antibiotics alone are sufficient for treating UTIs.
The nurse is palpating a female patient's adnexa. The findings include a firm, smooth uterine wall; the ovaries are palpable and feel smooth and firm. The fallopian tube is firm and pulsating. The nurse's most appropriate course of action would be to:
- A. Tell the patient that her examination is normal.
- B. Give her an immediate referral to a gynecologist.
- C. Suggest that she return in a month for a recheck to verify the findings.
- D. Tell the patient that she may have an ovarian cyst that should be evaluated further.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the findings of a firm, smooth uterine wall, palpable ovaries, and a firm, pulsating fallopian tube are concerning for possible gynecological issues such as ovarian cancer or pelvic inflammatory disease. A prompt referral to a gynecologist is necessary for further evaluation, which may include imaging studies or biopsies to rule out serious conditions. Choice A is incorrect as the findings are not normal. Choice C delays necessary evaluation, potentially leading to a progression of any underlying condition. Choice D assumes the presence of an ovarian cyst without further investigation, which is not appropriate given the pulsating fallopian tube and the need for a comprehensive assessment by a specialist.
A patient has low cardiac output due to poor cardiac function. He is eclematous. Which one of the following should be avoided because it can aggravate cardiac dysfunctions?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Mannitol
- D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that can worsen heart failure by increasing plasma volume and exacerbating the workload on the heart. Furosemide (A) and Hydrochlorothiazide (D) are loop and thiazide diuretics, respectively, commonly used to manage fluid overload in heart failure patients. Spironolactone (B) is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can be beneficial in heart failure by counteracting potassium loss caused by other diuretics.
Which is not a relatively common finding in ESRF patients?
- A. Metastatic calcification.
- B. Peripheral neuropathy
- C. Hypophosphatemia
- D. Hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypophosphatemia. In end-stage renal failure (ESRF) patients, hypophosphatemia is not a common finding due to impaired renal excretion of phosphate. Metastatic calcification (A) occurs due to high calcium-phosphate product, peripheral neuropathy (B) can result from uremic toxins, and hyperparathyroidism (D) is common in ESRF due to secondary hyperparathyroidism. Therefore, hypophosphatemia is the least likely finding in ESRF patients.