Nokea
The nurse is describing how to perform a testicular self-examination to a patient. Which statement is most appropriate?
- A. “A good time to examine your testicles is just before you take a shower.â€
- B. “If you notice an enlarged testicle or a painless lump, call your health care provider.â€
- C. “The testicle is egg shaped and movable. It feels firm and has a lumpy consistency.â€
- D. “Perform a testicular examination at least once a week to detect the early stages of testicular cancer.â€
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it emphasizes the importance of seeking medical advice if any abnormalities are detected during the self-examination. This statement encourages prompt action and follow-up with a healthcare provider, which is crucial for early detection and treatment of testicular cancer.
Incorrect options:
A: Timing of the examination is not as critical as the action to take if abnormalities are found.
C: Describing the testicle's shape and texture is not the primary focus of a testicular self-examination.
D: Performing the examination once a week is excessive and not recommended by medical guidelines.
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What is the most appropriate response regarding the use of salt substitute for Susan on a salt-restricted diet?
- A. Yes, there are some very good salt substitutes available and they do make the food taste better.
- B. Salt substitutes contain potassium and should be avoided.
- C. You may use a salt substitute now but may need to give it up later.
- D. Why don’t you try seasoning your food with soy sauce or beef bouillon?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because salt substitutes often contain potassium, which can be harmful for individuals on a salt-restricted diet, especially those with kidney issues. Excessive potassium intake can lead to dangerous health complications.
Choice A is incorrect because while some salt substitutes may enhance flavor, the primary concern with their use is the potassium content, not taste improvement.
Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a temporary use of salt substitute, which may not be advisable due to the potential potassium-related health risks.
Choice D is incorrect as it suggests alternative seasonings that may not address the issue of potassium intake from salt substitutes.
A 35 year old man heroin addict on methadone maintenance therapy for the last one year, is positive for TB on Chest x-ray. He was started on standard quadri anti-TB drug. He is rushed to ER complaining of withdrawal symptoms. Which of the following anti-TB drugs is likely to cause this patient’s withdrawal reaction?
- A. Streptomycin
- B. Rifampicin
- C. INH
- D. Pyrazinamide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is known to induce cytochrome P450 enzymes, leading to increased metabolism of methadone and subsequently causing withdrawal symptoms in methadone-maintained patients. Streptomycin (A) is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used in TB treatment but does not interact with methadone. INH (C) and Pyrazinamide (D) do not have significant interactions with methadone metabolism. Therefore, Rifampicin is the likely cause of this patient's withdrawal symptoms.
Which of the following anti-HIV regimen that is generally reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or for repeated treatment failures?:
- A. Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI)
- B. Three NRTIs
- C. Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI
- D. One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) + one protease inhibitor (PI). This regimen is typically reserved for advanced cases of AIDS or repeated treatment failures due to its high potency and effectiveness in suppressing HIV replication. NRTIs work by blocking the reverse transcriptase enzyme, while PIs inhibit the protease enzyme, both essential for HIV replication. Combining two NRTIs with a PI targets the virus at multiple stages, reducing the likelihood of resistance development. In contrast, the other choices (B, C, D) do not offer the same level of efficacy or resistance prevention as the combination in choice A. B: Three NRTIs may lead to increased toxicity without added benefit. C: Two NRTIs + one non-NRTI lacks the potency of a PI in advanced cases. D: One NRTI + one non-NRTI + one PI is not as effective as two NRTIs + one PI in suppressing
Cloxacillin is indicated in infections caused by the following organism(s):
- A. Staphylococci
- B. Streptococci
- C. Gonococci
- D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cloxacillin is a beta-lactam antibiotic effective against Staphylococci. Staphylococci commonly cause skin and soft tissue infections. Streptococci are not typically treated with cloxacillin. Gonococci are not susceptible to cloxacillin. Therefore, the correct answer is A, as it is the only organism listed that is indicated for treatment with cloxacillin.
The following topical antifungal drugs include all EXCEPT: *
- A. Tolnaftate
- B. Crotamiton
- C. Terbinane
- D. Ciclopirox
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Crotamiton. Crotamiton is not an antifungal drug; it is actually a scabicide and antipruritic agent used to treat scabies and itching.
A: Tolnaftate is an antifungal commonly used to treat fungal skin infections like athlete's foot.
C: Terbinafine is an antifungal medication used to treat fungal infections of the skin and nails.
D: Ciclopirox is an antifungal used to treat fungal infections of the nails and skin.