Nokea
Intravenous furosemide is an alternative potent diuretic to Mannitol in the * treatment of the following condition:
- A. Cardiac edema
- B. Cerebral edema
- C. Cirrhotic edema
- D. Pulmonary edema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: Mannitol is typically used for cerebral edema due to its osmotic diuretic properties that reduce intracranial pressure. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly used for conditions like pulmonary edema. Therefore, intravenous furosemide is an alternative potent diuretic to Mannitol in the treatment of cerebral edema.
Summary:
A: Cardiac edema - Loop diuretics like furosemide are commonly used in cardiac edema, not Mannitol.
C: Cirrhotic edema - Loop diuretics are used in cirrhotic edema, but Mannitol is not typically indicated.
D: Pulmonary edema - Furosemide is commonly used in pulmonary edema, but Mannitol is not indicated for this condition.
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Which statement best describes Zidovudine: *
- A. Zidovudine in combination with other antiretrovirals is an alternative initial treatment for HIV infection.
- B. Zidovudine is also used to prevent transmission of HIV from the mother to her
- C. Zidovudine is converted by cellular enzymes to an active form, zidovudine diphosphate, which prevents viral DNA from replicating.
- D. Peripheral neuropathy is a specic adverse reaction to Zidovudine
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C):
1. Zidovudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) used in the treatment of HIV.
2. Zidovudine is indeed converted by cellular enzymes to its active form, zidovudine diphosphate.
3. Zidovudine diphosphate inhibits the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing viral DNA replication in HIV-infected cells.
4. This mechanism of action is crucial in reducing viral load and slowing disease progression in HIV patients.
Summary of Incorrect Choices:
A: Incorrect. While Zidovudine is used in combination therapy for HIV, it is not typically an alternative initial treatment.
B: Incorrect. Zidovudine can be used to prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV, but it is not its primary indication.
D: Incorrect. Peripheral neuropathy is not a specific adverse reaction to Zidovudine; rather, it is more commonly associated with
Which of the following drug adverse reactions precludes a patient from being given the same drug in the future?
- A. GI upset from Clarithromycin
- B. Skin Rash from Ampicillin
- C. Steven-Johnson syndrome from Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole
- D. Clostridium difficile superinfection from Ofloxacin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Steven-Johnson syndrome is a severe and life-threatening skin reaction that can occur with certain medications like Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole. Once a patient experiences this reaction, they should never be given the same drug again to avoid a potentially fatal outcome. The other choices, GI upset from Clarithromycin, skin rash from Ampicillin, and Clostridium difficile superinfection from Ofloxacin, are adverse reactions that can be managed or treated without completely excluding the drug from future use.
A patient with a recent history of nephrolithiasis has
- A. After determining that the patients
- B. Irrigate the ileal conduit with a dilute citric acid
- D. IV fluid administration
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: IV fluid administration. This is the most appropriate choice for a patient with nephrolithiasis as it helps to increase urine volume and dilute the concentration of minerals in the urine, reducing the risk of stone formation. Adequate hydration is crucial in preventing the recurrence of kidney stones. Choice A is incomplete and does not offer a specific intervention for nephrolithiasis. Choice B is unnecessary and could potentially cause harm by altering the pH of the urine. Choice C is blank and does not provide any relevant information for managing nephrolithiasis.
A 22-year-old woman with a history of chronic pelvic pain is being examined. The nurse suspects endometriosis. Which of the following is the most common symptom of endometriosis?
- A. Pain during menstruation.
- B. Pelvic pain that worsens during menstruation.
- C. Pain during ovulation.
- D. Heavy bleeding during menstruation.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pelvic pain that worsens during menstruation. This is because endometriosis is characterized by the presence of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus, leading to inflammation and pain in the pelvic region. The pain typically worsens during menstruation due to the shedding of this tissue, causing irritation and further inflammation.
A: Pain during menstruation is a common symptom, but what distinguishes endometriosis is the worsening of pain during menstruation.
C: Pain during ovulation is not a typical symptom of endometriosis. While some individuals may experience pain during ovulation, it is not the most common symptom.
D: Heavy bleeding during menstruation can occur in endometriosis, but it is not the most common symptom. Pelvic pain that worsens during menstruation is the hallmark symptom of endometriosis.
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of alprostadil?
- A. Alprostadil increases cAMP
- B. Alprostadil increases cGMP
- C. Alprostadil increases PDE-5
- D. Alprostadil blocks NO (nitric oxide)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alprostadil is a prostaglandin E1 analog that works by binding to specific receptors and activating adenylate cyclase, leading to increased levels of cAMP. This results in smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B and C are incorrect as alprostadil does not directly affect cGMP levels or PDE-5 activity. Choice D is also incorrect as alprostadil does not block nitric oxide, but rather enhances its effects through the cAMP pathway.