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Desmopressin reduces urine volume in which of the following condition? *
- A. Central (neurogeni
- B. diabetes insipidus
- C. Renal (nephrogeni
- D. diabetes insipidus
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Desmopressin reduces urine volume in diabetes insipidus by mimicking the action of vasopressin, which is deficient in this condition. It helps to increase water reabsorption in the kidneys, leading to decreased urine output. Central and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus are not directly treated with desmopressin as they involve different underlying mechanisms. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer.
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Which of the following drug which directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase * without the need for intracellular activation by phosphorylation:
- A. Nelnavir
- B. Nevirapine
- C. Stavudine
- D. Didanosine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Nevirapine. Nevirapine is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) that directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without needing intracellular activation. It binds directly to the enzyme's active site, preventing the conversion of viral RNA to DNA.
Rationale:
1. Nelnavir (A) is a protease inhibitor that works by blocking the protease enzyme needed for viral replication, not reverse transcriptase inhibition.
2. Stavudine (C) and Didanosine (D) are nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs) that require intracellular phosphorylation to become active, unlike Nevirapine.
In summary, Nevirapine is the correct answer as it directly inhibits HIV-reverse transcriptase without needing intracellular activation, distinguishing it from the other choices which belong to different drug classes or require intracellular phosphorylation.
A 35 year old man presents to the ER with severe headache. After lab workup, patient is diagnosed to have increased intracranial pressure. Which diuretic would work best to reduce this pressure?
- A. Hydrochlorothiazide
- B. Mannitol
- C. Acetazolamide
- D. Furosemide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mannitol. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that works by drawing fluid out of brain tissue and reducing intracranial pressure. It is commonly used in cases of increased intracranial pressure due to its ability to easily cross the blood-brain barrier and reduce cerebral edema. Hydrochlorothiazide (A) is a thiazide diuretic mainly used for hypertension and not effective for this condition. Acetazolamide (C) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that can reduce CSF production but is not as effective as mannitol for rapid reduction of intracranial pressure. Furosemide (D) is a loop diuretic that primarily acts on the kidneys and is not as effective as mannitol for reducing intracranial pressure.
A nurse is caring for a patient with impaired renal which the nurse should monitor the patient?
- A. Accumulation of wastes
- B. The nurse should facilitate collection of what
- C. Retention of potassium
- D. Depletion of calcium
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because impaired renal function can lead to the accumulation of wastes in the body, causing toxicity. Monitoring this is crucial for the patient's overall health. Choice B is incorrect as it does not directly relate to the consequences of impaired renal function. Choice C, retention of potassium, is also incorrect as it is a specific outcome of impaired renal function and not the primary focus of monitoring. Choice D, depletion of calcium, is incorrect as impaired renal function is more likely to lead to hypercalcemia rather than hypocalcemia. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize monitoring the accumulation of wastes in a patient with impaired renal function.
During a physical examination, the nurse finds that a male patient’s foreskin is fixed and tight and will not retract over the glans. The nurse recognizes that this condition is:
- A. Phimosis.
- B. Epispadias.
- C. Urethral stricture.
- D. Peyronie disease.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phimosis. Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin is tight and cannot be retracted over the glans. This can lead to problems with hygiene and urination. Epispadias (B) is a congenital malformation where the urethra opens on the dorsal side of the penis. Urethral stricture (C) is a narrowing of the urethra, causing difficulty with urination. Peyronie disease (D) is the development of fibrous scar tissue inside the penis, leading to curvature during erection. In this case, the fixed and tight foreskin indicates phimosis.
A 35 year old man heroin addict on methadone maintenance therapy for the last one year, is positive for TB on Chest x-ray. He was started on standard quadri anti-TB drug. He is rushed to ER complaining of withdrawal symptoms. Which of the following anti-TB drugs is likely to cause this patient’s withdrawal reaction?
- A. Streptomycin
- B. Rifampicin
- C. INH
- D. Pyrazinamide
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is known to induce cytochrome P450 enzymes, leading to increased metabolism of methadone and subsequently causing withdrawal symptoms in methadone-maintained patients. Streptomycin (A) is an aminoglycoside antibiotic used in TB treatment but does not interact with methadone. INH (C) and Pyrazinamide (D) do not have significant interactions with methadone metabolism. Therefore, Rifampicin is the likely cause of this patient's withdrawal symptoms.