Nokea
The nurse is caring for a patient scheduled for renal should the nurse include?
- A. The need to be NPO for 12 hours prior to the test
- B. Relaxation techniques to apply during the test
- C. The need for conscious sedation prior to the test
- D. Administration of IV potassium chloride
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because being NPO for 12 hours prior to a renal biopsy helps prevent complications such as aspiration during sedation. Choice B is incorrect as relaxation techniques are not typically relevant for a renal biopsy. Choice C is incorrect as conscious sedation is not routinely required for a renal biopsy. Choice D is incorrect as IV potassium chloride administration is unrelated to renal biopsy preparation and may even be contraindicated.
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Mrs. T. also complains of hoarseness, which results from
- A. increased capillary permeability
- B. a secondary respiratory infection
- C. a large thyroid tumor pressing on the larynx
- D. a psychologic illness
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because hoarseness can be caused by a large thyroid tumor pressing on the larynx, affecting vocal cord function. This physical obstruction directly interferes with the ability of the vocal cords to vibrate properly, leading to hoarseness. Increased capillary permeability (A) would not result in hoarseness. A secondary respiratory infection (B) may cause coughing or throat irritation, but not hoarseness specifically. A psychologic illness (D) would not directly cause hoarseness as it is a physical symptom related to the vocal cords.
Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of alprostadil?
- A. Alprostadil increases cAMP
- B. Alprostadil increases cGMP
- C. Alprostadil increases PDE-5
- D. Alprostadil blocks NO (nitric oxide)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Alprostadil is a prostaglandin E1 analog that works by binding to specific receptors and activating adenylate cyclase, leading to increased levels of cAMP. This results in smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation. Therefore, choice A is correct. Choices B and C are incorrect as alprostadil does not directly affect cGMP levels or PDE-5 activity. Choice D is also incorrect as alprostadil does not block nitric oxide, but rather enhances its effects through the cAMP pathway.
The nurse is teaching a health class about UTIs to a appropriate response?
- A. Document the presence of a healthy stom
- C. Assess the patient for further signs and symptoms of
- D. Men over age 65 are equally prone to UTIs as infection.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because assessing the patient for further signs and symptoms of UTI is crucial for timely diagnosis and treatment. By evaluating additional symptoms such as frequency, urgency, dysuria, and hematuria, the nurse can confirm the presence of a UTI. This step is essential for appropriate management and preventing complications.
Choice A is incorrect because documenting a healthy stomach does not address the assessment and management of UTIs. Choice B is incomplete and does not provide any relevant information about UTIs. Choice D is incorrect as men over age 65 are actually less prone to UTIs compared to women.
A patient has had three pregnancies and two live births. The nurse would record this information as gravida _____, para _____, AB _____
- A. 2; 2; 1
- B. 3; 2; 0
- C. 3; 2; 1
- D. 3; 3; 1
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 3; 2; 1. Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current one. As the patient has had three pregnancies, the gravida is 3. Para indicates the number of live births, so since the patient has had two live births, the para is 2. AB represents the number of abortions or miscarriages, which is 1 in this case. Therefore, the correct way to record this patient's obstetric history is gravida 3, para 2, AB 1.
Choice A (2; 2; 1) is incorrect because the patient has had three pregnancies, not two. Choice B (3; 2; 0) is incorrect as it does not account for the abortion/miscarriage that occurred. Choice D (3; 3; 1) is also incorrect because the patient has had two live births, not three.
A 75 year old man is suffering from benign prostatic hypertrophy and is being * treated with terazosin. Which of the following adverse reaction would be expected taking this drug?
- A. Erectile dysfunction
- B. Orthostatic hypotension
- C. GI distress
- D. Gynecomastia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Orthostatic hypotension. Terazosin is an alpha-1 blocker commonly used to treat BPH. It can cause vasodilation, leading to a drop in blood pressure, especially when standing up suddenly, resulting in orthostatic hypotension. This is because terazosin relaxes smooth muscle in blood vessels, causing dilation and blood pooling in the extremities. Erectile dysfunction (A) is not a common side effect of terazosin. GI distress (C) is less likely because terazosin does not directly affect the gastrointestinal system. Gynecomastia (D) is not a typical side effect of terazosin since it does not impact hormone levels significantly.